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Thank you for sharing that Great Scripture with us. May we learn to be humble and forever thankful to God.
1 Thessalonians 5:18
"In every thing give thanks: for this is the will of God in Christ Jesus concerning you."
God Bless.
The Scriptures about the Godhead. Sometimes called "Let Us..." in some passages. These scriptures are evidence of all 3 persons of the Godhead speaking to each other.
Genesis 1:26, 3:22, 11:7
Isaiah 6:8
Romans 1:20
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:27-30
1 John 5:7
John 10:30
"For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and GODHEAD so that they are without excuse:"
Genesis 1:1
The Father purposes
The Word (Jesus) speaks. ( John 1:1)
The Spirit (Holy Spirit) executes the spoken word. Action.
All working together. Jesus came to show us the Father, as Emmanuel.
Matthew 1:23
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
Jesus came to bring to each born again believer; the baptism and the in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit.
[ Genesis 1:2, John 3:6, Acts 2:1-3, John 16: 7-15]
To REFUSE this knowledge, is to reject the Son of God, and his provision.
This verse is usually brought up when discussing the trinity doctrine.......but that is because the text is misunderstood...... NOT of its context....but of the speaker of it !!! ( John ch 1 is also misunderstood.)
This pure lack of Biblical knowledge ( Amos ch 8 vs 11-12 ?? ) has confused - and deflected church teaching through out the world.
The Bible is clear....JESUS is NOT claiming to be the "I AM " And the explanation is given in Deuteronomy ch 18 vs 15, 18 and verse 19 : (or John ch 1 v 18 JESUS will "DECLARE" the FATHER) which simply state that GOD will send His "Chosen One" (My Elect.) Is. ch 42 v 1 chosen from "amongst thee" ie. "of THY brethren" ACTS ch 2 v 22 says:- "Jesus of Nazareth, a MAN approved of GOD " -- who would speak GOD's WORDS ..! JESUS agrees/admits this in eg John ch 12 vs 49-50 and in John ch 14 and John ch 17 !!!!
JESUS SPEAKS FOR HIS FATHER, ALMIGHTY GOD....who begot JESUS. So much for a trinity ..( man's invention !!!) GOD IS "ONE" !!!! CREATOR ALONE ! ( even church creeds get that bit right !! ) rodd.
So I ask:- JESUS came for the lost sheep of ISRAEL. The 10 tribes of ISRAEL were exiled to Assyria and never returned. (They are still "lost" - but some do know who and where they are today ! ) The 2 tribes of JUDAH were exiled to Babylon......and returned, found their land ( then renamed JUDAEA) was occupied...so ( whilst some initially aided in the rebuilding of the walls and Temple of Jerusalem) the 2 tribes of JUDAH made their home in Galilee....NOT a part of JUDAEA. ( Luke ch 2 v 4 ).
In JESUS' day...that was the status quo.
So, getting near my question ! :- JESUS stayed out of JUDAEA for "fear of the Jews". (John ch 7 v 1 ) They could not be Israelites as all 12 tribes were accounted for and JESUS did not find them. Matt ch 10 ! So ...who were the JEWS? The Jews know ! AND JESUS reveals the answer to us !...but the churches teach that they were ISRAEL !! The JEWS said in Matt ch 27 v 25 :- "His blood be on us and on our children." To say, therefore, ...as churches do say...that JESUS was a Jew CANNOT and IS NOT right !! What say you ?
(JESUS, ((during His ministry ))- despite what preachers surmise, - is recorded as only entering JUDAEA on 4 occasions...each at Passover time. His teaching was almost all done in Galilee. )
It seems to me that "truth" is very absent in the church...indeed, in the world !!!
This is a sensitive subject, I hope it will be treated as such, thank you. rodd.
This portion of 2 Maccabees is what the RCs use to support Purgatory, a intermediate place where outstanding sins can be atoned for coupled with the prayers from the living & gifts to the Church. However, the Bible totally refutes & rejects such an abomination, as we are all given only one life on Earth & one Saviour to call upon for the forgiveness of our sins. If we fail to do this, then there is no intermediate place of purification - only Hell where all unforgiven sinners are consigned. Hebrews 9:27: "And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment" (no second chances - no purgatory). How important it is for each one to take hold of the Truth & run to the Cross of Jesus for salvation & not trusting in man's wisdom & works to get there.
If that's the case then Paul was stating that John was known by him (which he probably was) & that John had this heavenly vision (in Revelation) about the early 40s AD. However, John was not exiled to Patmos till much later (in the 90s AD) probably under orders of Emporer Domitian (who was ruling at that time). If these dates are correct then it seems impossible for Paul to speak of John having these visions when they hadn't occurred as yet.
As well, how do you understand 2 Corinthians 12:5-7, where Paul writes about 'glorying' (boasting)? Is he then speaking about boasting in John's revelations & in case his boasting got out of hand, a "thorn in the flesh" was given him to keep him humble? It seems incredible that poor Paul would be so afflicted for the likelihood of his boasting of someone else's revelations. Yet, the clear understanding of the 2 Corinthians passage is to the Apostle Paul himself. If perchance he was speaking of another, how could Paul glory in that revelation, since the words of that revelation could not be revealed (v4); if nothing revealed, then where is the glorying? Sorry for all these questions - your comments have me perplexed.