King James Bible
King James Version (KJV)


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Let's analyze the first quote, first. Do is an action word and certainly not passive. It requires us "to do" something. But what? The will of My Father. What then, is the will of God? The will of God is not an abstract idea that is so complex we can't know what to do. Rather, the will of God is made known to us by His Spirit, the Holy Ghost, and relayed to us via Jesus through the Bible. So what does Jesus say we must do to obtain salvation? Jesus is asked what must one do to obtain eternal life. He first responses with several commandments. The guy says, "I do those things." Then Jesus replies, "If thou wilt be perfect, go and sell that thou hast, and give to the poor, and thou shalt have treasure in heaven: and come and follow me." Sell what thou hast requires great faith that the Lord will provide. Give to the poor is charity, which scores mega-points in getting to heaven. There are several references to charity including: And now abideth faith, hope, charity, these three; but the greatest of these is charity; charity covers a multitude of sins, and
though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity, I am nothing.
Giving with a pure heart (doing charity is the will of God) is an action item and is a major key to eternal life. This is a major stumbling block to many complacent Christians. Remember: faith (that God provides for us, charity (is love) and hope (Jesus comes soon).
promises of God in the name of Jesus ,amen
In more detail:
Chapter 2 from verse 2 onwards is framed as The Lord's Answer to Habakkuk.
I have read various commentaries but am still confused by this passage. Does it refer to Babylon or Jerusalem? The commentaries all to seem to casually assumed that it is Babylon that is being referred to. The words of the Lord begin by referring to Babylon in the third person. Then from verse 7 the second person is used.
Given that the Lord has just explained in the previous chapter that he going to raise up Babylon as a weapon against Jerusalem - it would make sense that 2:7-17 is an explanation of why and that therefore it is Jeruasalem that is going to receive a drubbing. And indeed that turns out to be the case:
Habakkuk prophesied in the southern kingdom of Judah at some time around the battle of Carchemish (605 BC). This battle, which resulted in the total defeat of the Egyptian armies, marked the end of any serious resistance to the Babylonian advances in the region. It was not long before Judah found herself under threat from Babylon - a threat that would lead to an attack on Jerusalem and partial deportation of its inhabitants in 597 BC, and a final onslaught in 588, eventually leading to the fall of the city and deportation of most of its population in 586 BC. The text of the book itself does not allow us to date the prophecy with any great precision.
McGrath, Alister. NIV Bible Handbook . John Murray Press. Kindle Edition.
So why the assumption that the Lord was referring to Babylon in 2:7-17?
The RCC is a cult that was martyring real Christians .
The godhead doctrine had much to to with their corruption .
Things are much worse today as the whore rides the dragon to destruction.
Come out of her !
a. In doctrine, there has been no demonstrable error with a fuller, doctrinally superior text.
b. In accuracy, it is a literal translation, gives person distinction, i.e. first, second, third person (as also seen in some other languages), use of italics, & no quotation marks (as they're not in the original languages).
c. In style, complex compound sentences aren't split into smaller sentences, Hebraic expressions are preserved, the Greek word order & tense is followed more closely (Jesse, if he reads this, can shed more light on this as he is proficient in Greek), & it maintains the poetic nature of the Scriptures (found in books such as Job, Psalms, Proverbs, etc.).
d. In background, though the state of the soul of King James has been questioned, he did pursue his quest for a Bible that was not like the prevailing Geneva Bible & one that had to be accurate & true to the original manuscripts. The KJV is free from modernist bias, and its translators were highly proficient in Hebrew, Greek & Latin and of course, in English.
Those are just a few points why I believe in the great worth of the KJV. But as I've said in other comments, I would rather that a person read another 'easier' version of the Bible (such as NASB, NKJV) to learn its Truths, than to not read it at all leaving him bereft of God's Word for him. Blessings to you, dear brother; hope you're doing well & strong in spirit.
I don't think we who stick to the KJV bible would say it is the "only correct" one. It is the most accurate English translation from the Hebrew(OT) and Greek(NT) texts we have today. I'm not going to go so far as to say it is 100% accurate as I have seen subtle differences here and there going through the Hebrew and Greek texts. Although I will say it is probably more than 95% accurate and I am no scholar in translations. We must give credit to the 50+ highly respectable scholars who took years to translate the original Holy Scriptures to the first printed English Bible which is the 1611 KJV. The normal KJV is noted as the Oxford 1769 version. The only differences from the 1611 version are updated spellings, the letter "J" which was not yet in 1611, and some capitalization changes. Though it is word for word. Unless anyone else knows of any other differences.
A couple details for you about the changes made to the modern Bible from the KJV. Anywhere between 7 & 25 entire verses and 2,000 to 7,000 words removed. Then between 3,000 and 10,000 words added in some translation. Words changed. The KJV Bible having over 780,000 words it may not seem to be much. Though some of the things they remove and change are very important.
As I myself was led to Jesus Christ from I think a NASB Bible. Then seeing how much better the KJV was that is all I read now.
It is the most accurate English translation we have of the Word of God. If anyone has any questions about something it would be better to ask another, or search for details, rather than just dis-regard the KJV because it is not like "modern" people speak today.
Like stated it's not the "only correct" one it's the most accurate one in English. There has to be a best version of the English Bible and the KJV holds the crown.
Revelation 22:18-19.
God Bless.
If Mary contributed to the conception of the Babe, then you're right, the Babe would have inherited her sin nature. If this were so, then Jesus would have not qualified to be the Lamb of God as He would be imperfect. Is a human baby imperfect? Yes. The sin nature is there but since sin has not been committed at that stage, there is no condemnation against it - but that baby would never fulfil God's requirements to be a sacrifice for sin.
But Jesus, as a Babe, as a Man, could, because He had no sin nature in spite of many deliberate attempts by Satan to make that happen. Had Jesus succumbed, He would have failed as God's Sacrifice, we would still be in our sins & God would have no other Sacrifice option to give. Why? Because He gave the very best - HIMSELF. Such is the demonstration & proof of Divine Love: in the giving of oneself for the salvation of the helpless & hopeless, lost in sin.
How we can praise Jesus today & always that for our sakes He remained unstained by the sin nature & sin and was "obedient (to the Father right up) unto death, even the death of the cross". May the Lord enable you Sacha in every way as you meditate on His Word on this very important matter of belief.
Would the Love of God for sinners be seen in creating another human or animal (though perfect) to represent Him in sacrifice & prove His Love? It would be like saying, 'I don't want to risk my life to go out to save the drowning man; I would rather find another to do it for me'. Where is the true Love here?
Rather, for John 15:13 to reveal Jesus' Mind, we can only understand that Jesus was the One Who delighted to accomplish His Father's Will as a Man: John 6:38; Philippians 2:6-8.
So to the question: who is this Jesus & was He linked to Mary by blood thereby inheriting her sin nature? From the Scriptures just given, we see that Jesus is inextricably connected to God & came down from Heaven as God sent out His Word to be made human ( John 1:1,14). Can God (His Word made flesh) be found with a sin nature? To answer that, I referred you to 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. Here we saw that God's first creation (Adam) is of the Earth, earthy; the second Man is the Lord from Heaven" & He is referred to as the last Adam.
So God had determined two separate creations. The first one was created perfect but was deceived & sinned. The second One was created perfect, not from dust, but by the Spirit who took the Word & placed it in Mary to be brought into the World not as a man formed from & lying on the ground but as a Babe formed by the Spirit & issued through a woman.
Thank you Sacha - I welcome all responses, as whatever is shared, unless completely in opposition to God's Word, can be useful for our knowledge & spiritual growth in the things & ways of God. So I agree, God did choose to have His Son born through a human, even though all humans are imputed with a sinful nature. And yes, I believe there was a reason for doing so.
At the foundation of Jesus' arrival & His Sacrifice, lies the unfathomable Love of God for mankind: John 3:16 & Romans 5:8 attest to it. To His people, Israel, that Love extended to the institution of the Law & the sacrificial system, so that through its performance, God's Anger against their sin was appeased & His Love declared in providing them a way out: a blood sacrifice was needed (through a pure spotless animal) so that life was paid for life (a substitutionary payment: Mark 10:45; 1 Peter 3:18). But that was for a time until Jesus came to fulfil the Will of God His Father ( Hebrews 10:5-10).
Since the animal sacrifices were temporary because of their inability to fully address the sin issue, they had to be a continual sacrifice, they gave no relief to man's consciences & never fulfilled God's eternal Plan, so at "the due time" God sent His Son to fully meet those shortcomings. God could have sent a specially created Lamb to fulfil this work or as some believe, a specially created Human to lay down His Life for sinners. So why didn't God do this?
Ultimately, the reason for this is in the Mind of God, but no doubt His Love for all, His requirement for a Perfect Sacrifice that fulfilled all His Demands & that there would be no further need nor better option to accomplish that Will, are a few of my thoughts. John 15:13 says, "Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends." Was not Jesus intimating that the fullest expression of Love is seen in one's unreserved willingness to sacrifice his own life because of the love for another?
Abraham had two sons, Ishmael (the son by works, who was cast out) and Isaac (the son of promise) by faith. It is the second, Isaac, and Jesus also says that 'this day, salvation has come to this house' ie Zaccheus has been born again - evidenced by his change of heart/lifestyle.
This was Jesus' mission to the Jews, and ultimately, the entire world, to show them the necessity for spiritual rebirth in order to be right with God. This is why he told Nicodemus (a teacher of the law) 'You must be born again'.
Jesus told the woman at the well, 'Those who worship God must worship Him in spirit and in truth' - this can only happen when a person is 'born of the spirit' i.e. is born again.
which ONE?
I understand your question of "charity" in place of "love". Which I believe we all today know the word "love" better than "charity". Why they chose to use that word several hundred years ago I don't know. Maybe more common then as today it means more of giving money. Stated as "giving alms" then. Love and charity is the same Greek word "agape" in the Greek texts. Meaning "brotherly love, affection, good will, love." It is translated 26 times as "charity" and 85 times as "love".
The NKJV is better than most other versions printed. There are still differences from the original KJV that I don't like. I know there are some things that are easier to read as what you just noted. In two instances in Acts 3:13 and verse 26. Instead of saying "His Son Jesus"(God's Son) it states "His Servant Jesus". In 1 Corinthians 1:18. it states "to us who are BEING saved" from "unto us which ARE saved".
Of coarse these are very subtle changes as there are more. Even as I was lead to Jesus Christ by reading another version of the Holy Bible. The KJV is the best and most accurate though.
To bring up one thing I came across just the other night. I was going over the Wycliff Bible which was written/translated in 1382. If someone thinks the 1611 KJV is hard to read, this version is almost like another language in how early and different the English language was. Most of it, that I went over, is pretty accurate next to the KJV. I came across one word, in one verse, that is very important that differed from the KJV. Knowing that the Wycliff Bible was translated from the Latin Vulgate, and not the Greek texts, I looked up the Vulgate. Copying and translating the verse it actually came out to what the KJV stated. This was very comforting knowing that just this one word was accurate in the KJV to the Vulgate which was written in the year 382AD.
Sorry about all that extra stuff. I just thought I would use this post to bring this up to you and others.
God Bless.
"We love him, because he first loved us" 1 John 4:19
"That he would grant unto us, that we being delivered out of the hand of our enemies might serve him without fear, in holiness and righteousness before him, all the days of our life" Luke 1:74-75
"If ye love me , keep my commandments" John 14:15
"If a man love me, he will keep my words" John 14:23
"And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" Luke 6:46
"Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven" Matthew 1032-33
"This same Jesus which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in a like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven" Acts 1:11
"And then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory" Matthew 24:30
"And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory" Luke 21:27
"And before him shall be gathered all nations" Matthew 25:32
These verses are for all of us!
Matthew 16:17
"And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven"
"he ever liveth to make intercession for us" Hebrews 7:25
"And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous" 1 John 2:1
"No man hath seen the God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him" John 1:18
"I will utter things which have been kept secret from the foundation of the world" Matthew 13:35
"In my Father's house are many mansions.... I go to prepare a place for you" John 14:2
"God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good" Acts 10:38
"Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps" 1 Peter 2:21
"For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you" John 13:15
"Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and things under the earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father" Philippians 2:9-11
"I am a debtor" Romans 1:14
I feel to reply to your post and expand to what Carleton stated. In this wicked world we live in one of the most important questions we, those who follow Christ, can ask ourselves when a situation occurs is "what would Jesus Christ do"?
It is right that the truth be spread and exposed. What is right and wrong. A big problem is the evil powers of this world own pretty much everything to do with mass communication. T.V., radio, internet, schools, etc and many people are brainwashed and deceived. Only a very small portion can be trusted to follow truth in whatever way. Although the devil mixes lies with truth to make it even harder for people to denote one from the other.
As I have been following what has been going on with the powers that be in the world for probably the last decade. Violence and fighting physically accomplishes nothing but more violence and blood shed. What the evil one wants. People to destroy themselves, by dividing them in any way, for their gain.
We, who follow Christ, are to live in peace. To turn the other cheek. To love and have mercy even on our enemies. Who I do not see as any other "person". It is the devil and the evil powers that be who control people in this world. That is what/who I hate. Not people. As I feel sorrow that they are being led to damnation. Hoping, and praying, one day in their lives they shall see the light and give themselves to the Lord. One more repentant sinner who has been saved.
Here are a couple verses from the OT and NT for you. With Romans 12:21. Reading Romans 12:17-21 gives a better view. Fear not those who can destroy the body, but Him who can destroy both body and soul in Gehenna/Hell.
Matthew 10:27-28.
Ecclesiastes 5:8
Micah 6:8
Matthew 5:39-45
Ephesians 6:11-17
They that take the sword shall perish with the sword. Matthew 26:52.
Jesus Christ is the only way. Not fighting for this, or any, "country". "Vengeance is mine, I will repay, saith the Lord."
With respect. God Bless.
Revelation 3:14 ...... these things saith the Amen ( Revelation 1:8), the faithful and true witness ( Revelation 1:5), THE BEGINNING OF THE CREATION OF GOD.
May the Spirit grace us with HIS wisdom and HIS understanding