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For example, I point out a car to you which is parked kerbside. I tell you, "That's my car". How do you understand me? In the normal way, you will immediately assume that the car belongs to me. But actually it doesn't belong to me, it belongs to a friend, from whom I have loaned it. So which is correct? In a sense, both are correct: the car is mine because I have the key to it & I drive it - so it could be that I own it or I took loan of it - it's still mine to get inside & drive it.
The point I'm making is that whether Jesus is described as 'the Son of God' or 'God's Son' or 'God the Son', can still have the same meaning only if the Scriptures spoken about Him, warrant it. If we didn't have John 1:1-14, John 20:28, Isaiah 9:6, Titus 2:13, Colossians 2:9, Hebrews 1:1-8, John 10:30, 2 Peter 1:1, & others, given to us, then yes, you would be entirely correct to say that Jesus is just a created Being by God, thus to be called His Son.
So the question is not about the accuracy of the term 'God the Son', but rather what do people do with all the other Scriptures that point to Jesus being both the Son of God & God the Son? I have often asked people to exegete John 1:1-14 to me & they have failed to do so. I did see a Christadelphian article on it, & they say "the Word that became flesh was not the incarnate Son but the incarnate Word". Strange! If the Word became flesh & we know of no other human that became one from the Word of God, then it must apply to Jesus Who is God's Word made flesh & dwelt amongst us. I have no problem with this, but those who oppose this doctrine fail to provide an adequate explanation, rather either avoid such Scriptures or apply another interpretation to them to support their belief. Some might be convinced by this - others, reading the Word, remain unconvinced.
sara j.
Of the early Church, which should have made much ado about their Saviour's birth, death & resurrection by commemorating them on particular days, I note that the Word remains noticeably quiet. Yet, in the meaning & practise of the Lord's Supper, I tend to believe that they acknowledged Jesus' coming & work on the Cross at this time, without the need for the allocation of special days (which days they too, like us, may not be certain of).
Like you, I was very pedantic on this subject when I first came to Christ, as I was, with many other beliefs & practises of Christians. I only wanted to follow the teaching from the Word & not the teaching & traditions of men. Over the years, I have quietened & softened over the matter, taking comfort that at least the ungodly world can on these two occasions in the year, receive something of the glorious message of God. That they may know that this holiday time is not just a happy celebration of loved ones coming together in fellowship, but to consider the yearning of God to have fellowship & intimacy with all of them through His Son.
So how does God view the Christian's observance of these holidays? Again, I note that the Apostle Paul went to any length to be able to win souls for Christ. 1 Corinthians 9:20-23: He "became a Jew under the Law once again" (though not turning to Judaism) & to the "weak" (in faith & in mind), he became like them (in understanding their faithlessness), just so that by his identification with his hearers, he may be able to create open hearts to receive the Gospel which sets men free from the burden of the Law & is the trigger to receiving saving faith. We can use these occasions, any occasions, to share Christ's Love to all.
What do you mean you disagree - it says clearly black on white!!
You say you are baffled with Judaism didn't believe Christ was the sent one. I am not baffled at all - it is crystal clear. Jesus fulfilled none of the requirements of messiah - where is world peace, where is knowledge of G-d in the whole world, where are the returned 10 tribes, where is the 3rd temple? Supposedly performing a few miracles is no criteria of messiah at all. He also transgressed many laws and went against the sages of the time. The list goes on and on.
... them which sat in the region and shadow of death, light is sprung up.
I think the comma after death separates the thought that those who lived in the region were under the shadow of death until Jesus came there. When he did, light sprung up.
Saying the end is near .
Wells without water ,clouds without rain
Thank all of you for your concern .
I don't allow any horror movies in my home
This was seen at a friends home .
Jesus was born of God and there fore his Son and RCC never had the spiritual understanding.
Dear Xaviar & Chris, Just my thinking and thoughts about the other creation of people and Dinosaurs on Earth before
Adam and Eve. I believe they were destroyed before the Garden active. The massive comet/asteroid around 65
million years ago. Adam lived 930 years and Cain living 730 years....maybe Cain married a sister or another relative. because HERE IS THE WORD that has branded my brain. Genesis 1:28 God said (Replenish) the Earth. Meaning..
Fill up again or Restore. Then again to Noah and his sons after Flood...Replenish the Earth in Genesis 9:1. Just some of
the things I have thought about. we really won't know all these things until and IF God wants us to know in the end.
Sister in Jesus Christ ( Yeshua )
who is better than god,nobody .yes nobody is better than god........