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Thou shall not kill is a commandment, so then is it acceptable to kill in certain situations? JJ
Putting this scripture in context and applying it to our walk and the issues of our day, why is it that no one, that I am aware of, in the Body of Christ has suggested the application of this verse when it comes to the coronavirus and how we should view and respond to it?
To which Jesus replies. " Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is,God..."
What's happening here...does Jesus suggest that He ( Jesus) is not good?
Did HE inherit the sin nature from Mary, but still remain sinless by His choices?
HE refers to Himself in other places as the " son of man "
If HE doesn't have the sin nature we have from the first Adam, then HE can't relate to me
as a man, since HE doesn't have it and I do?
Is it possible HE did all His miracles as a man, empowered by the Holy Spirit?...and He is no different
from me ( or you ) as a believer?
And we will do more miracles than HE did, because we believe in HIM?
Historically there have been people who have experienced miracles, but who are totally human in nature?
A real puzzle for me.....any thoughts on how this can be resolved?..... Neil, in Canada
he was an unattactive man or a man of sorrows
I've learned that the KJV 1611 is the only English Bible that has a, "Crown" copywrite and it was put there by the British government because they knew that the KJV 1611 is the True Inspired and Infallible Word of God in English and did not want anyone to claim Gods Word and make it their own. The, "Crown" copywrite means no one owns it, but God. So, in order to create, copywrite, another "bible", a false bible, you would have to significantly change/alter Gods very Words and make them your own.
My question is, how do you tell someone that asks you, well do you still read the KJV 1611? I do not, I read the standard KJV Bible. They'll then say, well the KJV is not Gods Word because it has altered the Old English from the original English KJV 1611.
My thoughts were, they're still the same words. They didn't replace the Old English words in the KJV 1611 with totally different words, nor with different words that mean something different. I believe what they did was, use the same exact words, but put it in the Standard English that closely resembles how we speak of today. The KJV did not take away or add to the KJV 1611.
What are your thoughts? Your feedback would be Greatly appreciated. Thank You!
And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
2. WRT Verse 16. Psalms 2:7 "I will tell of the decree: The LORD said unto me: 'Thou art My son, this day have I begotten thee." This is G-d speaking to David, supposedly over 9oo years prior to Jesus. Is G-d a man to lie?
I have been reading my bible daily verses and the Bible off an on. I didn't know there was a place to ask questions.
No animals?