Discuss Acts 22 Page 6

  • David on Matthew 28 - 11 years ago
    I don't believe in adding my opinion to the Word of God, rather accepting it and obey it all. There is a command to teach nations and baptizing them ( Acts 2:38, Acts 8:16, Acts 10:48, Acts 19:5, Acts 22:16, Romans 6:3-5), and even in 1 Corinthians 1:13-15 and Colossians 3:17 that all we do in word or deed should be in the name of Lord Jesus. To me, it is not about what I think, it is about obeying the Word.
  • Patty on Acts 2 - 11 years ago
    If baptism isn't important to be saved then why does Christ say it is so often in the scriptures? Because it is very important.
    Mark 16:16 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

    Acts 11:16 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost.

    Luke 3:21 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    Now when all the people were baptized, it came to pass, that Jesus also being baptized, and praying, the heaven was opened,

    Matthew 20:23 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give, but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared of my Father.

    Acts 1:5 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    For John truly baptized with water; but ye shall be baptized with the Holy Ghost not many days hence.

    Romans 6:3 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?

    1 Corinthians 1:16 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.

    Matthew 20:22 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    But Jesus answered and said, Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able.

    Mark 10:39 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    And they said unto him, We can. And Jesus said unto them, Ye shall indeed drink of the cup that I drink of; and with the baptism that I am baptized withal shall ye be baptized:

    Matthew 3:14 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?

    Mark 10:38 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    But Jesus said unto them, Ye know not what ye ask: can ye drink of the cup that I drink of? and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with?

    Acts 22:16 | Read whole chapter | See verse in context
    And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
  • Andrew on 1 Corinthians 13 - 12 years ago
    "Hear ( Mt 7:24), believe ( Jn 8:24) repent ( Lk 13:3,5) confess ( Acts 8:37) and be baptized for the remission of your sins, ( Acts 2:38, 8:12, acts 22:16)"

    AMEN. THAT SUMS IT ALL UP. TRUE REPENTANCE AND ACCEPTING CHRIST SACRIFICIAL LOVE ON CALVARY IS WHAT'S REQUIRED. PAUL SAYS LET EVERY MEN BE WRONG AND GOD'S WORD BE RIGHT. NOW WE SEE THINGS DARKLY THRU THE GLASS, BUT THEN FACE-TO-FACE, WE SHALL BEHOLD HOLD HIM CHRIST THE LORD. IT GIVES ME REAL JOY HAVING TO KNOW CHRIST. THE ONLY REASON I LIVE IS TO WORSHIP HIM. GOD BLESS SAINTS!
  • Claude Byrd on 1 Corinthians 13:10 - 12 years ago
    What does the word perfect mean in scripture? But the man who looks intently into the perfect law that gives freedom, and continues to do this, not forgetting what he has heard, but doing it--he will be blessed in what he does.( James 1:25). Jesus answered, "If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me." ( Matthew 19:21) Does the perfect here means something different than the perfect used in 1st Corinthians 13:10? What is the perfect law of liberty? What was Jesus referencing when he told the rich young ruler if thou would be perfect go sell all that you have and come follow me. Could perfect mean complete? I'm just saying! Sometimes we make things more difficult than they should be! My feeling or my opinion is fruitless when it comes to the word of God. Solomon said in Proverbs 16:25 "There is a way that seemeth right unto a man, but the end thereof are the ways of death." In Matthew 7:24 Jesus said these words "Therefore everyone who hears these words of Mine and acts on them, may be compared to a wise man who built his house on the rock." The Hebrew writer said in Hebrews 5:8-9 Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation,

    Hear ( Mt 7:24), believe ( Jn 8:24) repent ( Lk 13:3,5) confess ( Acts 8:37) and be baptized for the remission of your sins, ( Acts 2:38, 8:12, acts 22:16)
  • Ben weaver on 1 Corinthians 11 - 13 years ago
    More thoughts about the religious covering issue. Lets keep our interpretation of this difficult passage in context to avoid idolatry and lets keep our eyes on Jesus and his growing kingdom. In the beginning of this letter to the Corinthians, Paul determines to know nothing save Jesus Christ and Him crucified. This thrust is most likely the "ordinances" mentioned in our v.2. Vs, 8-9 provide the setting for the "head" subject. The most likely definition of the Gr. word for "head" is "source" rather than authority. Adams body was the source of material of which God created Eve. This same Gr. word is also used in Acts 22:28, where it is translated to "sum" as the money source for obtaining Roman citizenship. Christ is now the head (source of spirit life) for every man (male and female) no longer Adam. Paul makes it clear in Gal. 3:28, that in Christ, male and female are the same. This passage was written as response to their questions (see 7:1) after he explains both sides of various circumstances, dividing them with "but" and "nevertheless" as you find in our V.11. God fearing women who are not in Christ are right to wear a veil indicating her role in humanity's fall into sin. The word "power" in v.10 means jurisdiction and is altogether removed from the errant "symbol". Please see Rev.2:26 for the same two Gr. words translated to "power over". Our V.16 has Paul's conclusion to the covering custom.
  • Ann johnson on Revelation 18 - 13 years ago
    Greetings everyone in the Name of Jesus Christ! In Matthew 28:19 our Lord gave the command to the disciples to go baptize in the Name (of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost). To find out how this commandment was carried out, we must search the book of Acts. On the day of Pentcost, Acts 2:37 Baptism was in the Name Of JESUS. This was preached by the Apostle Peter. Acts 8:12-17 the Church at Samaria was established and they were baptised in the Name of Jesus by Philip, another of Christ's diciples. The Church at Caesarea, Acts 10:44-48, baptism was also preformed by Peter in the Name of the Lord, which is Jesus. The Church of Philippi, Acts l6:14,15,also verses 25-34; as also the Church of the Ephesians were baptized by Paul in the Name of Jesus. Acts 18:1-11, Acts 19:1-7 Romans 6:3, Acts 22:16 are also examples. Even those that were baptized by John the Baptist, after they received instruction by Apostle Paul were RE-baptized in the Name of Jesus. Now I ask you to answer this question-- Did the Apostles and Disciples of Jesus defy His command to be baptized IN THE NAME of the father,son,and Holy Ghost or were they carrying out His instructions knowing there is only ONE NAME given under heaven whereby ye must be saved? Allow Jesus to take the blinder off your mind and receive this wonderful truth: Jesus is the Name of God (father,son, Holy Ghost) He is the Word made flesh. No more than you can separate your word from who you are, Neither can the ONE GOD separate Himself into three separate Gods. It is One God in three offices---Father, Son, Holy Ghost...OH PRAISE THAT SAVING NAME WHICH REVEALED BY THE ANGEL !!! Read Isaiah 9:6--The prophecy of His Name. GOD CAME WRAPPED IN A NAME IN BETHLEHEM. May the Lord reveal His Truth to you.
  • Anonymous on Acts 22 - 13 years ago
    These three chapters are all correct. The writings of the three chapters are not the same, but the contents of each chapter is synonymous in meaning. Each chapter talk about Paul on how he converted to become follower/preacher of the word of our Lord Jesus Christ. Before Paul was not converted, his task from the higher authorities in his times is to capture/destroy/punish the believers of our Lord Jesus Christ. So, in his way to Damascus the light was shone over him that cause his eyes not to see, and he heard a voice of the Lord Jesus Christ why you persecuted me. On that moment, Paul accepted the named Jesus Christ.
  • Mike on Acts 22 - 13 years ago
    how come there is 3 different versions to this story? which one is correct?
    acts chap 9 v3-7 or acts chap 22 v6-9 or acts chap 26 v12-15
  • Ben weaver on 1 Corinthians 11:2 - 13 years ago
    V. 2, traditions / teachings may have evolved into a different concept than Paul intended. Paul's theme, in general was Jesus Christ and Him crucified as opposed to religous principles and rules like the Pharisees held to. In Philippians 3:8, he strongly disregards the religious complex in order that he may win Christ. In the opening thrust of this letter to the Corinthians, Paul kind of bursts out with Jesus. In the first 10 Vs., he uses 26 words naming Jesus. In V. 23 and Ch.2:2, he determines not to know anything other than Christ and Him crucified. In Ch.4:4, he instructs, not to judge things. Beginning at Ch. 7:1, he yields access to their questions, of which we have here in Ch.11. In this context, it seems more likely that the word "ordinances" in V.2, refers to his teachings about Jesus rather than turning back to religious principles again. The very next statement is, "The head / source of every man (including male and female) is Christ. (following this; the head / source of woman was Adam's rib). (Using head as source is established in Vs. 8-9). The Roman soldier used this same Gr. word, "With a great SUM/HEAD obtained I this freedom ( Acts 22:28). Gal. 3:28 states, "There is neither male or female, for ye are all one in Christ Jesus".
  • Ben Weaver on 1 Corinthians 11 - 13 years ago
    I find this difficult passage to be the most manipulated one in the Bible. Many have completely reversed the message of v. 10 & 16 to make it flow with traditional understanding of the other verses. This is cause for concern. What is the root error?
    The word "head" in v. 3, sometimes seems to indicate chief or superiority. It can also mean top, source or origin, as "head of a river" - where the river begins.
    The same Gr. word is used; "The stone which the builder rejected has become the HEAD of the corner (foundation stone, source of stability". Also, the Roman soldier used the same Gr. word, translated to "sum. With a great sum obtained I this freedom"( Acts 22:28). The head, or sum of money was the origin or source to purchase his citizenship.
    In our 1 Cor. 7-9, the word head-kephale is also described as source or origin in the creation sequence. The man's body was the source of material for the woman, and she was made for him, hense "the glory of the man is the woman" i.e. he exults and delights in her. It appears that this use of the word head does not mean superior or boss but rather source, in creation.
    Paul says, "judge in yourselves" v.3, and v. 10 says the woman ought to have power on/over the head, which is true to the Gr. "Exusia epi" and other early translations. Exusia is defined as "Jurisdiction, rule, liberty and authority. Rev. 2:6 used the same 2 Gr. words; "I will give him POWER OVER the nations. We wouldn't twist that like we have v. 10 in our passage.
    But, why would Paul nail down a case, then turn around? In ch.1&2 v.2, he is determined to promote "only Christ and him crucified". Then from ch.7 on, he does respond to their less significant questions with duel comments, using such words as "nevertheless", which we find in our v.11. First about the human race from Adam, then those "In the Lord"(v.11). The believer's source of connection is now through Jesus rather than through Adam.
    Throughout the Bible, "veil / covering" is used as a symbol of defeat or disgrace ( 2 Sam. 15:30, Jere. 14:3, Isa. 25:7 and Matt. 27:51), before the atonement. So, a symbolic head covering is appropriate for worldly religions without the atonement, but might become an idol, distracting believers from him, hense "We have no such custom, neither do the churches of God". EVERY man in v.3 might include women.
  • Ben Weaver on 1 Corinthians 11 - 13 years ago
    I find this difficult passage to be the most manipulated one in the Bible. Many have completely reversed the message of v. 10 & 16 to make it flow with traditional understanding of the other verses. This is cause for concern. What is the root error?
    The word "head" in v. 3, sometimes seems to indicate chief or superiority. It can also mean top, source or origin, as "head of a river" - where the river begins.
    The same Gr. word is used; "The stone which the builder rejected has become the HEAD of the corner (foundation stone, source of stability". Also, the Roman soldier used the same Gr. word, translated to "sum. With a great sum obtained I this freedom"( Acts 22:28). The head, or sum of money was the origin or source to purchase his citizenship.
    In our 1 Cor. 7-9, the word head-kephale is also described as source or origin in the creation sequence. The man's body was the source of material for the woman, and she was made for him, hense "the glory of the man is the woman" i.e. he exults and delights in her. It appears that this use of the word head does not mean superior or boss but rather source, in creation.
    Paul says, "judge in yourselves" v.3, and v. 10 says the woman ought to have power on/over the head, which is true to the Gr. "Exusia epi" and other early translations. Exusia is defined as "Jurisdiction, rule, liberty and authority. Rev. 2:6 used the same 2 Gr. words; "I will give him POWER OVER the nations. We wouldn't twist that like we have v. 10 in our passage.
    But, why would Paul nail down a case, then turn around? In ch.1&2 v.2, he is determined to promote "only Christ and him crucified". Then from ch.7 on, he does respond to their less significant questions with duel comments, using such words as "nevertheless", which we find in our v.11. First about the human race from Adam, then those "In the Lord"(v.11). The believer's source of connection is now through Jesus rather than through Adam.
    Throughout the Bible, "veil / covering" is used as a symbol of defeat or disgrace ( 2 Sam. 15:30, Jere. 14:3, Isa. 25:7 and Matt. 27:51), before the atonement. So, a symbolic head covering is appropriate for worldly religions with the atonement, but might become an idol, distracting believers from him, hense "We have no such custom, neither do the churches of God". EVERY man in v.3 might include women.
  • Sumith de alwis on Acts 22:20 - 14 years ago
    "keeping the garments of those putting him to death"Is this part of the stonning process ? please explain the stonning process from beginning to end. Is it a sinful act to keep garments of those putting one to death ?
  • Sumith de alwis on Acts 22:20 - 14 years ago
    the act of keeping clothes at his feet. what does this mean ? Who are witness whose clothes were removed ? why should witness remove clothes - is it before stonning and why ?
  • Glenda on Matthew 22 - 14 years ago
    Study the BIBLE your self. I used to think that the Pharisees and the Sadducess were the same. They were very different. That's why I love to study my questions out for myself. The Pharisees thought it was right to keep Mose's law an oral tradition. There was some JESIS CHRIST beliveing Pharisees. Nocodemus. Joseph of Arimathes were 2 of them. This Joseph bagged the poilet for the body of JESUS. He laid the body of JESUS in the tomb that he had hued our for himself. I thought JESUS being put in this tomb ment that it had been used before, it had not MATTEW 27: 51-60. Gamatial was a Phaisees also and the teach of Saul ( later to be called Paul ACTS 22:3.
  • Ed on Acts 22 - 14 years ago
    I think the book of acts explains many things that were taught in the first 4 books of the new testament.. It tells of the coming of the church in the 2nd chapter.. It tells of many of the conversions from Jewish faith to the Christian and it most importantly explains that baptism is for the purpose of putting one into christ by cleansing the sinner's sins and making them a new creation.. (Christian)


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