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Let's state it this way. God (Jesus) sustains and provides all human functions. But man has freedom to determine how these functions are used. We see this all through the Bible. Man is commanded to choose between God and Satan. Then he is judged for his choices. God (Jesus) has determined that this is how he will deal with his creatures. It is out of his infinite wisdom and love for us.
This is called Free Moral Agency.
At creation and at man’s fall, God is using “us” (plural), God where there was no man may mean a plural of majesty, which shows God’s grandeur and the grandeur of the work He was in; creation.
It may also mean God speaking to other living creatures that were present there, like the angels of God.
Some say God was speaking to Jesus, but I don’t believe that. Because sure Jesus Christ is the firstborn of every creature ( Colossians 1:15); but that is in God’s prescience, God’s foreknowledge, just like God hath chosen us before the foundation of the world ( Ephesians 1:4).
I hope this helps.
God bless you.
1. The Greek words used in the text, as this passage was written in Greek, and
2. How this scripture corresponds to others, rather than making it stand on its own.
Due to the translation of the Greek word used, many Bible scholars choose to translate the latter part as "a God", or as "divine". This would support the rest of the Bible, both Old and New Testaments which refer to Jesus as having been created by God, serving as his only begotten son, and "the firstborn of all creation." – Colossians 1:13-16. Jesus himself stated that "the Father is greater than I am." – John 4:28. The scriptures as a whole support Jesus being the only-begotten son of God, sent here to make God’s name and Kingdom known, demonstrate the benefits of that Kingdom for humankind, and to provide a "ransom in exchange for many".- Matthew 20:28, Mark 10:45.
In Colossians 1:14, the word used of Apostle Paul is WE, and not the word ALL. If the word used is ALL, I salute you, but the word used is WE. So, I conclude that the words “WE were” refer only to the Jews or Israel nation. Gentile people were not included in this verse through His blood for the forgiveness of sins. Also Paul citizenship is a Jew. While Paul speaking in this verse, there are Jews and Gentiles around him. In 1 John 2:2 the verse did not say that there is shedding of blood. So be watchful, this verse did not say that through the blood of Jesus Christ the sins of the whole world be forgiven.
Saying the blood of Jesus was shed for Israel only. I am glad you are reading the King James Bible. God did want the gentiles to worship him. In 1 John 2:2 ''And he is the propitiation (payment) for our sins, and not ours only but also for the sins of the WHOLE world.'' Colossians 1:14 says ''In whom we have redemption through his blood even the forgiveness of sins.'' I know Jesus died for me and my sins and I hope he will not be ashamed of me, and I will be able to call him brother. I’m going to meet him in the air!