Deuteronomy
King James Version (KJV)
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Exodus 23:14, Nehemiah 9:6-38,
1 Thessalonians 5:1-23, Act 1:7-11, Daniel 2:20-22,
Psalms 16:7, Matthew 21:31-41, Daniel 7:23-27, 2 Timothy 3:1-7, Isaiah 33:6, Jeremiah 8:7, Ezekiel 12:27, Daniel 7:2-27, Daniel 9:2-27, Daniel 11:2-45 -continues- Daniel 12:1-4, Luke 21:5-36, Revelation, the whole book,
Psalms 106:3, Psalms 31:15,
Deuteronomy 18:10, Deuteronomy 18:14, 2 Kings 21:6,
1 Chronicles 12:32, Esther 1:14,
Psalms 9:9, Psalms 62:8,
Matthew 16:2-3,
Hopefully these are helpful in your study.
not divination. Just sharing some word.
Further researching I found Bob Jones & John Paul Jackson both deceased had propheied about "a perfect storm" coming to America which both were uncomfortably accurate they explained it to be s combination of many elements of Government,financial, real storms, financial, racial unrest, fires in our streets. Jackson even spoke of the storm being about 300 miles wide "Dorian"?
Even with accurate prophecy please remember the WORD of GOD Jeremiah 27 & 28, Hosea 12:13, 1 Kings 13, Ezekiel 14:1-10, Matthew 10:41, Deuteronomy 18:15-22, John 4:44, Luke 4:24, * Deuteronomy 13:1-5, Joel 2:28, Acts 2:17-19
Hopefully all this is helpful in your research.
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PRAY and ask for a TEACHABLE spirit.
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I Corinthians 12 is referring to the Gifts of the Spirit. This whole chapter in 1 Corinthians 12 has nothing to do with addressing graven images of Jesus Christ.
1 Corinthians Chapter 12 should answer your question.
God bless...
Therefore, there can be no argument on that score as Jesus spoke those words as the Son of God. But the question remains: where was Jesus before His appearance on the Earth, coming as a Babe, born of a woman? And this is the difficulty with many: how can this human Jesus have a pre-existence? How can God's spoken Word even be made into flesh? And then we could & should also ask: How can God send out His Spirit to accomplish His Will on Earth if God is One, not two, three or more? It seems reasonable to understand that if God can issue out His Spirit (from within Himself) to do a Work, so can He issue out His Word (from within Himself) to bring it to His people. This He did through the prophets of old, but "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds" ( Heb 11:2).
Leaving aside John 1, Heb 11:2 tells us that God's Son brought God's Word & this Son is heir of all things & through WHOM God created the worlds. This is written plainly: that God's Word was made flesh to bring God's Word (and we know why He had to be man). Is it because you cannot envisage that a Word from God can be given flesh? Is not "God able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham?" Are Jesus' Words, "Before Abraham was, I am", have any significance to the pre-incarnate Jesus Christ? Let us not limit the Power of God by our weak human understanding & perceptions. I would be interested in how you would interpret these Scriptures.
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Subject: Word
2The same was in the beginning with God.
Subject: Word (because it says "The same was..." so it's the same Word)
3All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Subject: Word. In this language we are still talking about the same entity, unless there's an obvious change.
4In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
Subject: Word, and introduced a new synonym: the "light of men"
5And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
Subject: Word, using the new name "light"
6There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.
Subject: John. See how when it changes subjects, it's obvious? There was a man... whose name was John.
So, if what you're saying is true about He/Him in v3 suddenly switching characters without warning, it's inconsistent with the rest of the writing.
Then in v6-7 it says that John came to witness to the Light who is the Word, and it only further confirms it's Jesus as in v14 it says the Word became flesh. I wonder how you would interpret that to fit your current belief?
Do you believe Jesus is Lord? Romans 10:9.
Do you believe the Lord is God as it says in John 20:28?
God bless...
John 12:49
"For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak."
John 14:10
"Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works."
God bless
God Bless
This is where your grave error starts. The "Him" and "He" in John 1:3,4 is refering to God. Not the Son of God or the mythological god the son. The Word is God and God is a Spirit. Just like you have your word. Your word is not another person from you. It is you. When you speak, it is you who speaks, not a co equal person.
God did not become a man, he is not a man. But God was manifest in the flesh, he came in the flesh.
As you know, the Word of God was put into many men over the ages. Moses, David, Isaiah, Jeremiah, the prophets, & many others. Was this Word from God also made flesh in them as well? If so, of what importance, relevance or accuracy would this interpretation be? We are never told that the Word became flesh to any of these men: they were just men chosen by God to bring forth His Word to His people. As far as I can discern, the messages that came to them to be given to the people, were simply God's Word for Israel's obedience, knowledge & instruction - there was no reconstruction of that Word into a fleshly form - it was just an echo of God's direct Word to them.
But when Jesus came on the scene, He didn't just echo God's Word to Israel, but He was the Word of God - He wasn't just a Proclaimer but the Word was His Character. If this were not so, He would have been just as all the other prophets in the past (no different, no better). But Hebrews 1:1-3 tells us that this Prophet was different in His Birth ('express Image of God'), in His Glory ('the brightness of God's Glory'), in His creative Work ('made the worlds & upholds all things by His Power'), in His Sacrifice ('purging our sins'), in His return to His Glory, John 17:5 ('at the right Hand of God').
If you see this Jesus & believe that He was just another Prophet or a godly Man chosen of God, how does God's Word brought out through flesh have any relevance on God's Word made flesh? The former was given by man inspired by God. The latter was done by God sent out from within Himself, so that His Word would become flesh (man) for our sakes, which no other prophet could ever do. This separated Jesus from all others. John 1:14: "..the only begotten (unique, one of a kind) of the Father...".
As I really don't know of many groups though I have seen it here by some numerous times.
The first that come to mind that discredit the divinity of Christ are I believe, Jehovah's Witnesses, Muslims, and non converted Jewish people of coarse. And to note one thing at the end of a comment in that "Christ did not exist before His birth and neither did you or I". Well no one except Jesus Christ was born of a virgin conceived of the Holy Ghost.
Some have tried to say that "stating Jesus Christ is more than a man is idolatry" Which is very sad to me. As in Scriptures like 1 John 2:23 or John 14:6. Even in my own personal experience. I prayed to God for most of my life. Though when I was led to Jesus Christ and knew He was from God reading His teachings. After giving myself to Him my entire life changed from the inside out. Praise the Lord!
Christ did exist before from the beginning.
The answer is in the parable of the sower of the seed. The seed is the word of God; Jesus is the (promised) seed to Abraham, Issac and Jacob. A seed has become a plant (in this case a man) before it can produce seed (other men) exact like itself.
Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the FATHER, and of the SON, and of the HOLY GHOST:
1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the FATHER, the WORD, and the HOLY GHOST: and these THREE are ONE.
Revelation 19:11-14 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and He that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness He doth judge and make war.
His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on His head were many crowns; and He had a name written, that no man knew, but He Himself.
And He was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and His name is called The WORD of GOD.
One definition from "Logos" or "Word" in Greek. In John, denotes the essential Word of God, Jesus Christ, the personal wisdom and power in union with God, his minister in creation and government of the universe, the cause of all the world's life both physical and ethical, which for the procurement of man's salvation put on human nature in the person of Jesus the Messiah, the second person in the Godhead, and shone forth conspicuously from His words and deeds. A Greek philosopher named Heraclitus first used the term Logos around 600 B.C. to designate the divine reason or plan which coordinates a changing universe. This word was well suited to John's purpose in John 1.
John 17:3-5 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
If you can't believe in Scripture that Jesus Christ Himself says He existed before the world was. Just one place. I can't help you.
Jesus Christ did exist before He was born. Other Scriptures state this also.
God Bless.
v1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
The Word was God. That seems perfectly clear. I hope we agree on this so far.
v3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
At least 2 things we learn here, that the Word is a 'him' and He made everything. It doesn't say He was created or born only, but just that He was there from the beginning.
v5 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
He, the Word, was also the light of men. I hope we agree on that. So far we have 2 different names/metaphors used to refer to Him.
v6-7 John came ...to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.
This is talking about John the Baptist. I hope we on that.
v14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
So this same Word/light of men and 'he' male entity became flesh (like a person) and 'dwelt among us' John the author wrote. This sounds an awful lot like the Word became a human being, do you agree?
This John who bore witness sounds an awful lot like John the Baptist as described in Matthew 3:1-17 who called Jesus 'Lord' and even baptized Him. It's a perfect match. Do you agree?
So, just in this one chapter, we have learned a lot about the Word, that the Word was with God in the beginning and WAS God, and 'He' became flesh and dwelt among us (as a person) and that John the Baptist bore witness to the Light of Men and the Lord coming, and this matches perfectly in other parts of the Bible where Jesus came. Jesus made a significant impact on everyone and is the light of men today. Do you agree?
John 1:1 says:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
It doesn't say: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god the son".
God is a Spirit. And God was in Christ. His Son. When God filled his Son with the Holy Ghost, the Word was made flesh. Deuteronomy 18:18 was fulfilled.
The right of the first born is not always given to the first born, as is evident by the scripture. Look at Israel's and Joseph's sons for example.
The Son of God is the beginning of the creation because all things were created by him in mind. "Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, BY whom also he made the worlds;"
The Son of God did not exist before his birth. And neither did you and I.
god is spirit
john 4:24
the word was god
john 1:1
my words are spirit and life
john 6:63
christ was the first born of the word and the spirit
revelation 3:14 ... the beginning of creation.
yes the word is a person; christ existed long before he was made flesh.
Deuteronomy 18:18
King James Version
18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
Jesus spoke his Father's word.
The Father spoke through him.
The Father is the one that doeth the works. Who is the Father? The Holy Spirit ( John 4:24, Leviticus 11:44)
Blessed be the name of the Lord!
With all due respect, I've given you the word of God, not my interpretation, and you have rejected it choosing to cleave to the witchcraft/theology of rome and her 501c3 seminary indoctrinated sorcerers.
The problem here is when I read John 1:1, "and the Word was God"; I believe it as it is written, the written (yes every word of the kjv) or spoken word/logos was God (in the beginning it was only spoken). The Word was with God and the Word was God. Verily in the same way my Word also is with me and I am my Word, it represents me.
But when you read John 1:1, you believe the word; Word: actually means Son of God or Christ. This is because you have been taught to believe this by Rome. This is called witchcraft, the purposeful twisting of words to mean something other than what they mean.
God didn't die on a cross.
God cannot die, and has never been born. He is without beginning or ending.
The Holy Spirit is eternal.
The son of God, the man Christ Jesus( 1 Tim. 2:5) died on a cross, and God resurrected him.
Yes Jesus Christ was a man.
But he wasn't just any man, he was the son of God born without sin, because the Holy Spirit was his Father and a virgin was his mother, therefore he was not born under the curse of Adam, and he lived a sinless life yet being tempted in all the ways we are so he would be the sinless sacrifice for all humanity.
He was also that prophet spoken of by God to Moses:
Deuteronomy 18:18
18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
Just because He spoke the words of His Father (as you referenced John 8:58), does not make Him a "person of the godhead". Many prophets spoke the word of God and didn't claim to be part of the godhead. That is heresy. The word godhead is a singular word, not plural and there are no "persons" in it.
This is your final admonition to come out of Babylon (rome).
Be well.
Have you NOT read the Torah? I probably have read Leviticus the least. I'm currently in a Bible study on Genesis. But I've read through these books many times over the years.
Many significant things to me: a very few of them are...
Abraham believed God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness. Genesis 15:6
Moses intercedes for his people Exodus 33:12-23 "My presence shall go with thee, and I will give thee rest."
Sevenfold curses for Israel's rebellion Leviticus 26
Moses strikes the rock twice. Oops! Numbers 20:10-13
How can we know if a prophet speaks from God Deuteronomy 18:15-22