It's disturbing and sickening that RogerCox (or anyone) would even attempt to say that this act is ever okay. Whether it was commonplace then or not is entirely irrelevant. Owning slaves and doing the things to them that the Bible dictates is NEVER okay. In ANY context. EVER.
Its difficult for the modern mind to understand thes laws, however one should ask how in a day whenstate welfare didnt
Exist and as today people for various reasons got into difficulty and couldn't provide for themselves or their family how were they to manage. These laws were given for their welfare and differed immensely from the practices the pagan nation of that day
It's pretty nice that you have to ask for explanations to other believers; it just supports the idea that some of you either haven't read the bible and say you follow it (blindly), or you just accept what you are being told because of your lack of initiative and curiousness.
Thirty shekels of silver,the only amount given in the whole chapter.Thirty shekels for a servant. The same amount Judas got to betray Jesus.Coincidence ,I don't think so.
Thank you brother. An atheist has actually challenged me to explain this to him. Exodus 21:20-21 KJV. In verse 21-is the master at the discretion of the judges (magistrates), upon consideration of circumstances. I know it doesn't say that in this verse, so I can I prove it to the atheist. Because he feels the master got away with killing the slave even if he survives a day or two. Thank you, God is great !
How does it work if three differant people have said something wrongful & hurtfull to those same differant people you have done nothing wronged by you but have said very hurtful things to you about your dead & saved son ?
The later section of the book is teaching the Old Testament system of law and praise God that system was ripped through the blood of Jesus the mediator of the new and perfect covenant. And the earlier section is teaching the gospel through the Old Testament.
Please correct me if I am wrong, but isn't Exodus 21:1-11 specifically about the rights and obligations concerning Hebrews purchasing Hebrew slaves? And verses 7-11 about the sale of one's own daughter into slavery? Naturally this topic is troubling to the typical 21st century lay Christian. And then specifically Exodus 21:10, "If he (your daughter's master) takes another wife, he shall not withhold her food, her clothing, or her conjugal rights." What exactly does this mean? That your enslaved daughter retains the right to have sexual relations with her master after he has married another woman? And that if her master does not provide your enslaved daughter with food, clothing, and her conjugal rights (meaning sex?), then she is given her feeding without cost? This does not sound right to my 21st century lay mind. Can someone please explain this to me?
As per the above notes, the Holy Bible's verses has to be ruled out by some body elses.
The verses Exodus 21:24 is very clear in itself and need no clarifications, justifications from any others.
The Holy Quran also witnesses and confirms that in the religion Torah Eye for ..... is mentioned and giving additional ruling in the verses 2:178, 179 and 194, 4:92 and 4:148, 5:45, 16:126, 17:33, 22:60, 42:39,40, 41, 42 and 43.
Exist and as today people for various reasons got into difficulty and couldn't provide for themselves or their family how were they to manage. These laws were given for their welfare and differed immensely from the practices the pagan nation of that day
As per the above notes, the Holy Bible's verses has to be ruled out by some body elses.
The verses Exodus 21:24 is very clear in itself and need no clarifications, justifications from any others.
The Holy Quran also witnesses and confirms that in the religion Torah Eye for ..... is mentioned and giving additional ruling in the verses 2:178, 179 and 194, 4:92 and 4:148, 5:45, 16:126, 17:33, 22:60, 42:39,40, 41, 42 and 43.