Perfect, you are right. The Holy Spirit is a Person, the Paraclete, the Comfort - John 15:26 and John 16:12-15 - not a force (a ghost) or power from God. JESUS revealed (through His angel, and John testified) that the person of the Holy Spirit is the God of the earth- Revelation 11:4 combined with Zechariah 4:11-14.
The two olive trees(source of oil -the OT and NT, two olive branches which through the two golden pipes empty the golden oil out of THEMSELVES- Zechariah 4:11-14) , and the two candlesticks(two Churches: the Gentile Church and the Jewish Church- Hebrews 12:22-24) are standing before the God of the earth-the person of the Holy Spirit.
1John 5:7 - There are three that bear record (testify) in heaven(heaven? Ephesians 1:3-8), the Father(GOD Father), the Word(the Word made flesh-JESUS), and the Holy Spirit (who is a Person, not a ghost as is written in English language due to translators' carelessness): and these three are One. (Great mystery. Would not he be the younger brother of JESUS- Luke 15:30-32 combined with prophecy of Isaiah 7:15-16. Take a look. Great mystery.)
The past weeks I have taken much time in Scripture to once again find out what it teaches on the deity of Jesus. It is very important to me to believe what the Scriptures do say as the basis for my belief in Jesus. Jesus asks us to believe in Him, and to me, this means believing the truth about Him from Scripture as well as trusting in Him for salvation. So, in the following posts I will accept what the Scriptures say about Jesus' nature. What does the Scriptures say concerning Jesus in this view?
First, I will bring forward some OT prophecies concerning Jesus:
Psalm 45:6
"Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever; the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre."
The writer of Hebrews applies this prophecy to Jesus in 1:8
"But unto the Son, he (God) saith: "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever; a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre ofthy kingdom."
Verses 9-13 goes on to speak of the Son as creating the foundations of the earth and of the heavens; that the Son will fold these up again, and bring about the changed to them; but the Son is changeless and eternal.
Isaiah 7:14 gives a prophecy concerning Jesus.
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and they shall call him Immanuel."
Matthew 1:22-23 cites this prophecy as being fulfilled in Jesus, who is Emmanuel (another spelling of Immanuel) which means "God with us."
isaiah 9:6 prophesies that:
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, the Mighty God, The Everlasting Gather, the Prince of Peace"
Here, Isaiah the prophecy of vs. 9:14 is extended and still refers to Immanuel who Jesus is. In this verse Jesus is called Mighty God (an OT name for God) along with the Everlasting Father: (which shows Immanuel's oneness with the Father as Jesus said that "I and the Father are one" in John 10:30. cont. to pt. 3
Re.6:2-And I saw,and behold a white horse:and he that sat on him had a BOW;and a CROWN was given unto him(He is a Prince of GOD):and he went forth conquering,and to conquer.
Thine ARROWS are sharp in the heart of the King's enemies (enemies of JESUS,anti-JESUS,Antichrist;whereby the people fall under thee- Psalm 45:5.
Isaiah 7:22-24
22...he shall eat butter:for butter and honey shall every one eat that is left in the land(the remnant-144K) Question:The rebel Israel was banned from their land and was spread around the whole world from year 70 AD until 1948,but from now on?being ruled by a false God,a false messiah?- Revelation 13:11-18).
23 And it shall come to pass in that day(the current seventh and last Day,seventh and last millennium)that every place shall be, where there were a thousand vines at a thousand silverlings,it shall even be for briers and thorns.(because are good for nothing)
24 With ARROWS and with BOWS shall men come thither; because all the land shall become briers and thorns.
Isaiah 45:2
2Thou art fairer than the children of men:grace is poured into thy lips:therefore GOD hath blessed thee for ever.
3Gird thy Sword upon thy thigh,O most MIGHTY, with thy glory and thy majesty.(He's a Prince of GOD)
4And in thy majesty ride prosperously because of truth and meekness and righteousness;and thy right hand shall TEACH thee terrible things.
6Thy throne,O God(GOD the Father, GOD Son and(God of the earth- Revelation 11:4),is for ever and ever:the sceptre of thy kingdom is a RIGHT sceptre.
7Thou lovest righteousness,and hatest wickedness:therefore God(God the Father/God the Son),thy God,has ANNOINTED thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Zech.4:11-14
What are these two olive trees upon the right and left side of the candlestick?
What be these two olive branches which through the two golden pipes empty the golden oil out of themselves?
Knowest thou not what these be?
These are the two anointed ones, that stand by the Lord of the whole earth
The name of our Savior, Jesus that means "YHWH saves" Matthew 1:21-23 and Luke 1:31-32 the angel Gabriel told Mary to name the Son of God so that it may be fulfilled that was spoken of the LORD by the prophet Isaiah 7:14. they shall call His name Immanuel meaning God with us, nothing has changed. Jesus comes from the Hebrew word Yehoshua same as Jehoshua or Joshua, the Greek form is Iesous English is before the letter J it was Iesus now Jesus, it is just transliteration or translation from one language to another.
There were many back then with that name but only this Jesus is referred to as Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus, in Hebrew Yehoshua Moshiach, who is the Son of God, Jesus's identity, and His mission that His Father sent Him to do. The name Immanuel means with us is God, the presence of God in His Son that we see in the New Testament not His personal name. Like Jesus told Philip in John 14:7-11.
This is my understanding maybe others will have other comments, pray, and study, truth comes only from the Spirit of truth.
I'm seeking Truth, has anyone read Isaiah 7:14? The Father Named His Son Immanuel, why then was it changed? J E S U S is Latin right? He was a Hebrew. So I'm confused why we wouldn't call Him Immanuel what His Father Named Him. Also in the preface of my Bible it tells me they the translators or scribes changed His Name. I don't see anywhere in the scriptures where He said to do that. In fact I see where He specifically says not to add or take away from His Word. Changing His and His Son's name is doing exactly that. He tells us in Jeremiah they are going to do it and that they would pervert His Words. I know I can't be the only one seeing this.
John 10:34- seems to be a popular verse here. People want to believe they are a god, is that what's happening here? That would be a gross misinterpretation. You know this is a quote with a question mark at the end, right? Let's be honest about it. Here's the commentary for that:
Christ's argument is: If your law calls judges gods, why should I be held guilty of blasphemy for saying that I am the Son of God?
As per the other argument trying to discredit the word "one" sounds like your argument is that one doesn't really mean one, because Jesus used it to describe believers being one. I don't see how being one in unity as Christ's body somehow means that all the Bible verses about Jesus being God and divine suddenly don't apply? The verse about the Father and Son being one is only one of MANY verses competing the picture. The Bible already says Jesus the Word is God so how can you disregard that?
God: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:1 KJV
You: Word was "NOT" God?
"Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also." John 8:19 KJV
Have you thought about how your belief reconciles with verses like this above?
Isaiah 7:14 -
Yes, Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us". People called Jesus "God". He's King of King and Lord of Lords. Alpha and Omega, first and last. Do you believe Jesus is Lord? I believe that is a requirement for even being a Christian. A Christ follower should know who Christ is.
1 John 5:7-8
John 10:30
John 8:19
Genesis 1:26
Genesis 11:6-7 (plural "us" which includes Jesus, as per John 1:1)
Remember: Faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the Word of GOD- Romans 10:17. The Word is GOD, understand? Yes, the Word is the invisible GOD, self-executable. For example: The Word said: Isaiah 7:14 - Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a VIRGIN shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
The Word said(the Word is GOD): Isaiah 9:6-7:
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulder: and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
7 Of the increase of His government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with Judgment and with Justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. (By the way, GOD calleth those things which be not as though they were- Romans 4:17-understand? The Word is GOD, self-executing).
2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. I also believe this clearly refers to the OT prophets & writers that were inspired & moved by God's Spirit to pen these holy words.
The example you have given in these two Scriptures: Genesis 24:16 and Isaiah 7:14
. "Virgin" is in both references as given by the KJB translators, yet in Hebrew the words are different: the first one is 'bethulah' & the other 'almah'. Why did the translators not give different English words for each of those verses, but just used 'virgin'?
And also, Giannis explanation; "The Hbr should be translated as " young woman", not "virgin", that is why there is a difference from Genesis 24:16. This is how it is always written in the Hebrew Bibles (Tanakh).
I have the word in the Hebrew as 'almah'. (but dogmatic). meaning "Virgin. As Giannis said, Matthew follows the Septuagint text of the Old Testament, and in the Septuagint, it is written "the virgin."
Some has used this "SO CALLED DISCREPENCY" to attack the virgin birth and a person like me wouldn't know how to defend it being that I don't know Hebrew or Greek outside of helps and research.
So, that causes me to leave off the translations drama and go to the prophet and prophecy in Isaiah 7:14 and giving thought to what 2 Peter 1:21 is saying and its meaning.
In Isaiah 7:11 the Lord prompts Ahaz to "Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.
Vs 13 God draws the attention to the house of David.
Vs 14 God gives them a sign. "Therefore, the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son.
This wouldn't be much of a sign if it was a mere young woman. However, it draws one's attention if it is a virgin being mentioned.
God's truth can be found even if the translation or our ability to translate is imperfect.
Thank you Giannis for your comprehensive comment on this. It was interesting to learn that the KJB translators used the Septuagint in reference to Matthew 1:23 (from Isaiah 7:14) instead of the Masoretic text.
About Isaiah 7::14, the Hbr should be translated as " young woman", not "virgin", that is why there is a difference from Genesis 24:16. This is how it is always written in the Hebrew Bibles (Tanakh). So why did the KJB translators preferred the term virgin? Because this how it is written by Matthew in his gospel when he is referring to Isaiah's prophesy about Jesus' birth.. But Matthew follows the Septuagint text of the Old Testament, not the Masoretic. And in the Septuagint it is written "the virgin" And here comes the surprising thing. Although the KJB uses the Masoretic text for the Old Testament in this particular verse they use the Septuagint. Actually this verse is a verse where one part (Hebrews and christians) calls the others forgers. The Hebrews say the christians changed the text to fit Jesus' birth (how is that possible since the Septuagint was written 3 centuries BC?) and the christians say the Hebrews changed it later on to delete any reference to Christ. Just for information. GBU
In fact no Scripture ever points to the KJB as being the translation of the future that preserves God's Word perfectly. If one thinks that, then that person is forcing the Scriptures to point to the KJB when it doesn't.
Ask any Hebrew or Greek reader who is fully conversant in English as well, whether his reading of the KJB accurately reflects what his language/his understanding states. There will always be words (whether words written & understood back in the distant past or English words that are deemed to follow as closely as possible to the original), that they don't accurately, nor can ever do, when translated from one language to another.
As an example, take these two Scriptures: Genesis 24:16 and Isaiah 7:14. "Virgin" is in both references as given by the KJB translators, yet in Hebrew the words are different: the first one is 'bethulah' & the other 'almah'. Why did the translators not give different English words for each of those verses, but just used 'virgin'? Maybe it wasn't so critical for them or they couldn't discern any useful difference, but it does shows variance & imperfection in their work, however small it may be.
I love the KJB - I only read from it; but why I don't read from others is because of the manuscripts that they refer to, where verses are changed, words added or omitted. I find that very difficult to accept, even though I'm sure that the translators were not doing it intentionally: just using manuscripts that have proven to raise conflicts & irregularities. GBU.
This would be the prophet Isaiah. Matthew tells us in Matthew 1:22 that this is a fulfillment. Matthew is presenting to us the fact that the birth of Christ fulfilled prophecy, which is Isaiah 7:14.
None of us have a problem with you concerning this verse. It states that Mary was a virgin. And that fulfills the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14.
But this verse does not prove in any way that Mary was sinless.
So please don't think that we disagree with you about Mary being a virgin--rather our disagreement is that the verse does not say she was sinless. I am not aware of any verse that attests to the sinlessness of Mary.
But I do believe she was a godly woman who was awaiting the coming of the Messiah. She did not know ahead of time that God would choose her to be the virgin prophesied. But her response shows that she was a woman of faith and humility and also a willingness to bow to the will of God in her life.
Hi Stu. I see that many here have responded to you out of concern for you. I also realize that the teachings of the Roman Catholic Church can be very strong & indeed become a part of one's whole belief system & directing of life's affairs. What these folk here have shared is Truth, as given from the Bible, God's Word to us, and not according to Church teaching & dogma. The fact that the Papacy have permitted Catholics to read the Bible for themselves, when once upon a time it was forbidden, is a wonderful permission where Catholics (even those among my acquaintances) are now reading & asking questions; you may be one also wanting to seek Truth. The Church, from history, whether Catholic, Protestant, or whatever, has never been the sole repository of Truth - only the Bible contains it & we need to put aside if possible, what we've been taught & listen to what God's Word has to say.
Enough has been written to you on Mary's spiritual condition: that she was a normal human being, coming to Earth the normal way, & attaining the same sinful condition that we all have sadly received. You have mentioned the name, the Virgin Mary, & equating that title to her 'sinlessness', & why should she be so referred to as Virgin Mary, if she wasn't pure? Apart from what others have shared, I also understand this title given (even as far back as Isaiah 7:14), refers to the fact that Mary, Joseph, those acquainted with her family & those who would come to trust in Jesus as the Messiah, would know that it was God alone Who did this miraculous work of impregnating Mary with His Holy Seed. There were many virgin women in Israel at that time, & all had to have sexual relations with their husbands to conceive. But Mary was an exception: her Seed came directly from God, untainted with a sin nature, & she would be used as the means to fulfil prophecy & bring a Man, fully Divine, into the World. Hence, I see that the title, Virgin Mary, applying to this fact: that this was a miracle from God.
Hello Edward. That's a good question, but the answer to it becomes clear when we examine the Character & Names of Jesus.
What you read in Matthew 1:23 "...they shall call his name Emmanuel...", is taken from Isaiah 7:14, where God gives a prophetical word to wicked King Ahaz of Judah, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
Does this verse in Isaiah in conflict with Matthew 1:25, "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS?" When we study the names or titles attributed to Jesus, such as Immanuel, we learn that there is significance in giving each of these names. For example, the prophecy in Isaiah 9:6, tells us, "unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace." Here is a whole list of names attributed to the coming Jesus & though they are descriptive of the Character & Work of this One from Glory, I don't believe that anyone ever used those names, even in the Greek, when speaking to Jesus.
Likewise, when the prophecy was given in Isaiah 7:14, it was about the Name that Jesus' Coming would bring, i.e. Immanuel, or in Hebrew, 'with us is God'. And of course, this ties in beautifully with Isaiah 9:6, that Jesus IS the Mighty God (i.e. He not only comes from God, but out of God's Being, wholly Divine, & in His incarnation, wholly Human).
And you could look up Jeremiah 23:5,6 & see two other Names by which Jesus is identified: the Righteous Branch & The LORD our Righteousness (in Heb. Yahweh Sid-qenu), i.e. God's Name attributed to His Son Jesus, the Christ.
So, Jesus is His Name (in Heb. Yehoshua, or Joshua): the LORD is Salvation, but He can have many Names attributed to Him, each one depicting Who He is, and Immanuel is just one Name given to Him.
Damascus was a place mentioned several times in Old Testament, Genesis 14:15, Genesis 15:2, 2Samuel 8:5,6, 1Kings 11:1-25, 1Kings 19:14-18, 1Kings 20, 2Chronicles 16,
Isaiah 7:8,9, Isaiah 8:4, Isaiah 10:9, Isaiah 17, James 1:5,
In the New Testament it's the road to Damascus was the place of Saul's conversion to Paul: Acts 9, Acts 22, Acts 26, it's symbolic to many Christians as a turning point in Christian faith.
Or, did the Father create a male seed and place it into Mary's fallopian tube to join her egg with the Son simultaneously taking upon Himself the humanity of this first cell union? Or, did the Jesus put Himself into the male seed the Father created to then impregnate Mary? In Genesis 3 it is said that the "seed" of the woman will crush the serpent. Was this referring to the completed person of Jesus or to the divinely created "seed"? So many questions that we will most likely not find the answer to until heaven. But even though we do not scientifically know the workings of this miracle conception, we believe it. We know that it fulfills prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 "Behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called "Immanuel."'
The fulfillment of prophecy helps us in too be sure of our belief in this extraordinary, miraculous, unique, one-time-only, divine event.
Prophecy also spoke that the Messiah would be a descendant of David, which Jesus was through Mary. ( 2 Sam. 7:12-13.; Ps. 131:11; Jer. 23:5.) So does this mean that Jesus had the DNA of Mary (in the X) and then the DNA of God (in the Y)?
Or did the Father create Davidic DNA in the zygote He created? Either way, because lineages were well kept by the Jews, especially those in the line of David, due to the Messiah coming from him, we can read in Matthew 1:1 that Jesus was the descendant of David. He bona fide manhood (man in essence and nature).
But also, the Scriptures tell us that He also possessed Godhood (God in essence and nature. Is. 9:6 prophesied that this Son born to the virgin would be God in the flesh. "For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulders And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."
So this verse tells us that an actual flesh and blood human child will be born, but also that a divine Son would be given by the Father.
The preverbal question that comes up is what comes first...in this case is it Christmas or pagan stories of a similar nature? If you are already determined to be a diehard atheist; then I suppose you could automatically designate the story of the birth of Christ (which you can see is in those verses as well as the start of other Gospels) as a late version of say Semiramis or the countless mother and child mythologies involving a virgin child; or offspring from the "gods"; etc.
The genealogical descendants as you will observe are listed in Matthew from Joseph; but in Luke they are from Mary's lineage.
One point that is brought out in Matthew is the census; clearly the lineage of each family was well known in the list of descendants. There are some complexities involved which on a surface level may appear to be discrepancies. Nonetheless; the whole history of the O.T. had to have descendants for the Messiah to come through certain individuals. David was promised according to Mark 12:36 (referring to an O.T. scripture) that Messiah would be in his lineage.
The whole Christian faith hinges on God coming in the form of a man who could live as we did but without sin; and becoming the final atoning sacrifice. The O.T. sacrifices have been gone for nearly 2000 years; the occurrence of the curtain tearing in the Temple happened when Christ died. He had to overcome death and was Resurrected as well; all prophesied events. (See Luke 23:44-45). The virgin birth was promised in Isaiah 7:14. Christ had to not be born with the sin nature which all sons of Adam had (so wasn't from natural human seed). He had to take on our sins as the sacrificial lamb.
He had to be God (as God the Son and part of the eternal Godhead demonstrated as early as the Book of Genesis where God created man in "our image" ( Genesis 1:26). Only God can forgive; and Christ stating that He was the "I am" ( John 8:58) showed He was truly God as only God can forgive sins.
Genesis 3:15. And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and ( HER SEED;) it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise ( HIS HEEL.)
Genesis 22:18.
Genesis 49:10.
The Passover Lamb of God ( Exodus 12:1-28)
Leviticus teaches the way to God is by sacrifice. JESUS!
Leviticus 17:11. For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.
In the book of Leviticus you see a portrait of Christ and his work on the cross. When studying it.
It does well to go back and forward to new testament and present Christ. Especially Hebrews, That picture will paint itself.
Hi Mark. My understanding of Matthew 1:18-23, is that the angel, in a dream, told Joseph that he should take Mary to be his wife and the child that will be born from her is to be named "Jesus". So, the angel didn't give the name 'Emmanuel' to Joseph.
Then Matthew confirms that this would happen because of the prophecy that went before Jesus (i.e. in Isaiah 7:14), that His Name will be called, Immanuel. So, it seems that Matthew is giving further proof from prophecy that what the Holy Spirit was about to do was entirely from God and not man - i.e. Jesus would be Immanuel, God with us. So, Jesus is His Name, but Immanuel explains His Origin and Coming to the World.
Matthew 1:23 is a quote from Isaiah 7:14 a prophecy of the coming of the Messiah. In Matthew 1:25 we see Joseph named Him JESUS. The Hebrew name is Yehoshua the shorter Yeshua, a Greek form of Joshua a derivative of the word Hoshea meaning Yahweh saves.
His name became Iesous in Greek because of the Greek alphabet and from there to Latin, so the modern name Jesus comes from the Latin word Iesus which does not mean hail Zeus. If we call and pray in the name of the English word Jesus, I think God understands what we are saying. I am sure in all the other languages in the world there are many names for our savior.
Some things have entered into traditions and interpretations, but this is not one of them.
Dan, I beg to differ, there is only one God but the forms He appears to men determine who He is, we have to understand who God is so that the trinity mindset in us to vanish. In John 1:1 In the beginning was the word, the word was with God and the WORD was God. This very word that was God, was made flesh and dwelt among us( John 1:14). Isaiah 7:14 prophesies of Emmanuel meaning God with us. When you read in John 14:6-9 Philip desires to know the father, and what reply does Jesus Christ give? Have i been so long with you and yet you do not know the father? In verse 17 of the John 14 Jesus Christ again who is the Father shows that He shall send them the Holy Spirit whom the world knows not BUT THEY KNOW HIM FOR HE DWELLS WITH THEM BUT SHALL BE IN THEM!! Notice the spirit, the son the father is Jesus Christ?
Isaiah 7:14. Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Also Matthew 1:20-23. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
Isaiah 9:6 "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."
"mighty God" = Jesus as a baby is called God.
Titus 2:13-14 "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."
"God and our Savior Jesus Christ"
Isaiah 7:14 - Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us"
1 Timothy 3:16 "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
"God was manifest in the flesh" = this is Jesus, who was manifest in the flesh. John 1:14
Revelation 19:13-16
"his name is called The Word of God" = Jesus.
"and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God." = Jesus
"And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS." = Jesus
John 1:1 clearly says the "Word was God."
"Lord" also means deity or God.
"But Jesus prayed to God so how can He be God?"
Because the Bible says He is. Jesus has always been Jn 1:2 and relegated Himself to become a temporary man in the flesh prayed to God the Father. Just because He prayed as a temporary man does not automatically mean He wasn't God, the Son. 1 John 5:7
Philippians 2:9-11
"Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."
Let's see what else God's Word has to say in regards to your snarky comment against Jesus.
A few verses before in 2 Peter 1:11 it says "Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ." Do you believe Jesus is your Lord and Savior?
Do you know what "Lord" means?
The same old straw man fallacy shows up again that God the Son isn't God the Father, but no one is claiming that. This attack on Jesus is repeated so much it seems to fall into the disingenuous and lie territory.
God is powerful enough to do what you don't comprehend as a man. Whether you comprehend that or not doesn't change reality or the truth. The Bible says that in John 1 the 'word was God' and was there at the beginning, so do you believe it?
More of God's truth about God:
Luke 4:34 - "Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art; the Holy One of God."
Luke 4:12 after satan put Jesus to the test Jesus says "Do not put the Lord your God to the test."
Isaiah 7:14 - Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us"
Isaiah 42:5 "Thus saith God the LORD..."
Isaiah 42:8 "I am the LORD: that is my name..."
Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom."
Godhead:
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
John 1:18
God is we and us plural:
Genesis 1:26
If the Bible flat out said Jesus is God like it does would you believe it?
Where are the verses that say Jesus isn't God the Son? (none)
Where are the verses saying Jesus IS God the Son (above, numerous)
And where are the verses where Jesus verbally denied being God? (none)
Matthew 1:23 is the fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14 which reads, "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, (God with us). How can that be if Jesus is not God? Matthew is presenting to us the fact that the birth of Christ fulfilled prophecy, which is Isaiah 7:14.
A virgin was conceived by the Holy Spirit. That's what Joseph came to understand. And when Joseph made that last final procedure of adopting Jesus by giving Him His name Jesus, Jesus Christ became the legal heir to the throne of David. That's when it became official. So it didn't come from Joseph. Even some Jews were expecting Messiah to come from a virgin. Very interesting!
In Matthew 1:20-21 we have the account of the angel of the Lord appearing to Joseph in a dream telling him that Mary will become pregnant by the Holy Spirit and the child will be called Jesus (Jesus means YHWH is salvation), for He will save His people from their sins.
And goes on to say in vs 22-23 that this event will fulfill the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14
"Behold a virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel," which is translated, "God with us."
This verse says that Jesus is YHWH and that He is Immanuel (God with us). So, for me, I believe that Jesus is God, the Father is God, and the Spirit is God comprising a Godhead of three distinct Persons in one Godhead.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
Who is the Word?
John 1:14-15 says the Word is Jesus. Does anyone deny that the Word is Jesus?
If someone believes John 1:14, then do they believe John 1:1
"...the Word was God."
"...[Jesus] was God."
JESUS.
WAS.
GOD.
John 1:1
This is God's Word.
Some here are saying "Jesus was NOT God" despite John 1:1 clearly saying Jesus WAS God. I'd like to know exactly how someone can believe in all other verses of the Bible except this one? If something WAS something, that seems to offer little room for interpretation. It means it's the same, does it not? So, if something WAS something, how does someone twist this into believing it says something WAS NOT something?
It then must be asked: since it takes so much effort to take a sentence something WAS something to turn it into: something WAS NOT something, what is the true underlying motive here? Does God's Word carry the most weight and influence or does something else?
This is eerily similar to Gen 3:4 where satan denied what God said and claimed that they shall NOT surely die. Satan loves opposites and this seems to have his signature, does it not?
I welcome any perspective I'm missing, but do not consider anything other Bible verses as valid evidence. God's Word is all that matters and because there's already numerous verses supporting that Jesus is God like John 1:1 then that is what is true. Lastly, why not just pray and ask God directly to know the truth? Genuinely ask!
This is an interesting logical argument. I find that in 1 Peter 3:22. Let's assume for argument's sake that your conclusion is correct and you get 1 point for this.
But for every verse you cite, there are even more that say that Jesus IS God, like John 1:1 saying the "Word was God" and verse 14 that Jesus is the Word.
This could continue to play out and you can cite any number of verses to support your position, but again we don't run out of very compelling verses saying that Jesus is God.
Let's say that it's a dead even race. 30 verses suggesting Jesus isn't vs 30 verses suggesting He is.
Then what? Which do you choose to believe?
I don't know if you've gone through this exercise or not, but I now have a spoiler: someone will run out of verses supporting that Jesus "isn't" God long before the verses supporting He IS God. Not only that, but each of the verses commonly cited to claim that Jesus "isn't" God require some extra creative interpretation and human logic whereas the verses supporting the other side can be read and interpreted more literally. Not only that, but there's logical explanations for why Jesus called His Father God. The main reason is that He temporarily became a human being and limited His power. Phil 2:6-7. So, yes, as a man, He prayed to His Father and called Him God. So, all verses must be considered as a whole, not cherry picked in order to have understanding about the Godhead and I admit it is hard to comprehend as we don't have anything like it in on earth. But perhaps like an orange with seeds, pulp, skin. Someone calls pulp an orange, and it is.
The two olive trees(source of oil -the OT and NT, two olive branches which through the two golden pipes empty the golden oil out of THEMSELVES- Zechariah 4:11-14) , and the two candlesticks(two Churches: the Gentile Church and the Jewish Church- Hebrews 12:22-24) are standing before the God of the earth-the person of the Holy Spirit.
1John 5:7 - There are three that bear record (testify) in heaven(heaven? Ephesians 1:3-8), the Father(GOD Father), the Word(the Word made flesh-JESUS), and the Holy Spirit (who is a Person, not a ghost as is written in English language due to translators' carelessness): and these three are One. (Great mystery. Would not he be the younger brother of JESUS- Luke 15:30-32 combined with prophecy of Isaiah 7:15-16. Take a look. Great mystery.)
Part 2.
The past weeks I have taken much time in Scripture to once again find out what it teaches on the deity of Jesus. It is very important to me to believe what the Scriptures do say as the basis for my belief in Jesus. Jesus asks us to believe in Him, and to me, this means believing the truth about Him from Scripture as well as trusting in Him for salvation. So, in the following posts I will accept what the Scriptures say about Jesus' nature. What does the Scriptures say concerning Jesus in this view?
First, I will bring forward some OT prophecies concerning Jesus:
Psalm 45:6
"Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever; the sceptre of thy kingdom is a right sceptre."
The writer of Hebrews applies this prophecy to Jesus in 1:8
"But unto the Son, he (God) saith: "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever; a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre ofthy kingdom."
Verses 9-13 goes on to speak of the Son as creating the foundations of the earth and of the heavens; that the Son will fold these up again, and bring about the changed to them; but the Son is changeless and eternal.
Isaiah 7:14 gives a prophecy concerning Jesus.
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and they shall call him Immanuel."
Matthew 1:22-23 cites this prophecy as being fulfilled in Jesus, who is Emmanuel (another spelling of Immanuel) which means "God with us."
isaiah 9:6 prophesies that:
"For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, the Mighty God, The Everlasting Gather, the Prince of Peace"
Here, Isaiah the prophecy of vs. 9:14 is extended and still refers to Immanuel who Jesus is. In this verse Jesus is called Mighty God (an OT name for God) along with the Everlasting Father: (which shows Immanuel's oneness with the Father as Jesus said that "I and the Father are one" in John 10:30. cont. to pt. 3
Thine ARROWS are sharp in the heart of the King's enemies (enemies of JESUS,anti-JESUS,Antichrist;whereby the people fall under thee- Psalm 45:5.
Isaiah 7:22-24
22...he shall eat butter:for butter and honey shall every one eat that is left in the land(the remnant-144K) Question:The rebel Israel was banned from their land and was spread around the whole world from year 70 AD until 1948,but from now on?being ruled by a false God,a false messiah?- Revelation 13:11-18).
23 And it shall come to pass in that day(the current seventh and last Day,seventh and last millennium)that every place shall be, where there were a thousand vines at a thousand silverlings,it shall even be for briers and thorns.(because are good for nothing)
24 With ARROWS and with BOWS shall men come thither; because all the land shall become briers and thorns.
Isaiah 45:2
2Thou art fairer than the children of men:grace is poured into thy lips:therefore GOD hath blessed thee for ever.
3Gird thy Sword upon thy thigh,O most MIGHTY, with thy glory and thy majesty.(He's a Prince of GOD)
4And in thy majesty ride prosperously because of truth and meekness and righteousness;and thy right hand shall TEACH thee terrible things.
6Thy throne,O God(GOD the Father, GOD Son and(God of the earth- Revelation 11:4),is for ever and ever:the sceptre of thy kingdom is a RIGHT sceptre.
7Thou lovest righteousness,and hatest wickedness:therefore God(God the Father/God the Son),thy God,has ANNOINTED thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
Zech.4:11-14
What are these two olive trees upon the right and left side of the candlestick?
What be these two olive branches which through the two golden pipes empty the golden oil out of themselves?
Knowest thou not what these be?
These are the two anointed ones, that stand by the Lord of the whole earth
The name of our Savior, Jesus that means "YHWH saves" Matthew 1:21-23 and Luke 1:31-32 the angel Gabriel told Mary to name the Son of God so that it may be fulfilled that was spoken of the LORD by the prophet Isaiah 7:14. they shall call His name Immanuel meaning God with us, nothing has changed. Jesus comes from the Hebrew word Yehoshua same as Jehoshua or Joshua, the Greek form is Iesous English is before the letter J it was Iesus now Jesus, it is just transliteration or translation from one language to another.
There were many back then with that name but only this Jesus is referred to as Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus, in Hebrew Yehoshua Moshiach, who is the Son of God, Jesus's identity, and His mission that His Father sent Him to do. The name Immanuel means with us is God, the presence of God in His Son that we see in the New Testament not His personal name. Like Jesus told Philip in John 14:7-11.
This is my understanding maybe others will have other comments, pray, and study, truth comes only from the Spirit of truth.
God bless,
RLW
Christ's argument is: If your law calls judges gods, why should I be held guilty of blasphemy for saying that I am the Son of God?
As per the other argument trying to discredit the word "one" sounds like your argument is that one doesn't really mean one, because Jesus used it to describe believers being one. I don't see how being one in unity as Christ's body somehow means that all the Bible verses about Jesus being God and divine suddenly don't apply? The verse about the Father and Son being one is only one of MANY verses competing the picture. The Bible already says Jesus the Word is God so how can you disregard that?
God: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." John 1:1 KJV
You: Word was "NOT" God?
"Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also." John 8:19 KJV
Have you thought about how your belief reconciles with verses like this above?
Isaiah 7:14 -
Yes, Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us". People called Jesus "God". He's King of King and Lord of Lords. Alpha and Omega, first and last. Do you believe Jesus is Lord? I believe that is a requirement for even being a Christian. A Christ follower should know who Christ is.
1 John 5:7-8
John 10:30
John 8:19
Genesis 1:26
Genesis 11:6-7 (plural "us" which includes Jesus, as per John 1:1)
Philippians 2:5-8
2 Corinthians 5:19
John 1:3
Matthew 28:19
1 Peter 1:2
2 Corinthians 13:14
Deuteronomy 6:4
John 14:10
John 20:28
1 John 2:22-24
Matthew 1:23-25
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
Isaiah 7:14
Hebrews 1:8
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 43:11
Remember: Faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the Word of GOD- Romans 10:17. The Word is GOD, understand? Yes, the Word is the invisible GOD, self-executable. For example: The Word said: Isaiah 7:14 - Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a VIRGIN shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
The Word said(the Word is GOD): Isaiah 9:6-7:
6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a Son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulder: and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
7 Of the increase of His government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with Judgment and with Justice from henceforth even for ever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. (By the way, GOD calleth those things which be not as though they were- Romans 4:17-understand? The Word is GOD, self-executing).
Have you never read Hebrews 11 ?
2 Peter 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost. I also believe this clearly refers to the OT prophets & writers that were inspired & moved by God's Spirit to pen these holy words.
The example you have given in these two Scriptures: Genesis 24:16 and Isaiah 7:14
. "Virgin" is in both references as given by the KJB translators, yet in Hebrew the words are different: the first one is 'bethulah' & the other 'almah'. Why did the translators not give different English words for each of those verses, but just used 'virgin'?
And also, Giannis explanation; "The Hbr should be translated as " young woman", not "virgin", that is why there is a difference from Genesis 24:16. This is how it is always written in the Hebrew Bibles (Tanakh).
I have the word in the Hebrew as 'almah'. (but dogmatic). meaning "Virgin. As Giannis said, Matthew follows the Septuagint text of the Old Testament, and in the Septuagint, it is written "the virgin."
Some has used this "SO CALLED DISCREPENCY" to attack the virgin birth and a person like me wouldn't know how to defend it being that I don't know Hebrew or Greek outside of helps and research.
So, that causes me to leave off the translations drama and go to the prophet and prophecy in Isaiah 7:14 and giving thought to what 2 Peter 1:21 is saying and its meaning.
In Isaiah 7:11 the Lord prompts Ahaz to "Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.
Vs 13 God draws the attention to the house of David.
Vs 14 God gives them a sign. "Therefore, the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son.
This wouldn't be much of a sign if it was a mere young woman. However, it draws one's attention if it is a virgin being mentioned.
God's truth can be found even if the translation or our ability to translate is imperfect.
God bless
About Isaiah 7::14, the Hbr should be translated as " young woman", not "virgin", that is why there is a difference from Genesis 24:16. This is how it is always written in the Hebrew Bibles (Tanakh). So why did the KJB translators preferred the term virgin? Because this how it is written by Matthew in his gospel when he is referring to Isaiah's prophesy about Jesus' birth.. But Matthew follows the Septuagint text of the Old Testament, not the Masoretic. And in the Septuagint it is written "the virgin" And here comes the surprising thing. Although the KJB uses the Masoretic text for the Old Testament in this particular verse they use the Septuagint. Actually this verse is a verse where one part (Hebrews and christians) calls the others forgers. The Hebrews say the christians changed the text to fit Jesus' birth (how is that possible since the Septuagint was written 3 centuries BC?) and the christians say the Hebrews changed it later on to delete any reference to Christ. Just for information. GBU
In fact no Scripture ever points to the KJB as being the translation of the future that preserves God's Word perfectly. If one thinks that, then that person is forcing the Scriptures to point to the KJB when it doesn't.
Ask any Hebrew or Greek reader who is fully conversant in English as well, whether his reading of the KJB accurately reflects what his language/his understanding states. There will always be words (whether words written & understood back in the distant past or English words that are deemed to follow as closely as possible to the original), that they don't accurately, nor can ever do, when translated from one language to another.
As an example, take these two Scriptures: Genesis 24:16 and Isaiah 7:14. "Virgin" is in both references as given by the KJB translators, yet in Hebrew the words are different: the first one is 'bethulah' & the other 'almah'. Why did the translators not give different English words for each of those verses, but just used 'virgin'? Maybe it wasn't so critical for them or they couldn't discern any useful difference, but it does shows variance & imperfection in their work, however small it may be.
I love the KJB - I only read from it; but why I don't read from others is because of the manuscripts that they refer to, where verses are changed, words added or omitted. I find that very difficult to accept, even though I'm sure that the translators were not doing it intentionally: just using manuscripts that have proven to raise conflicts & irregularities. GBU.
This would be the prophet Isaiah. Matthew tells us in Matthew 1:22 that this is a fulfillment. Matthew is presenting to us the fact that the birth of Christ fulfilled prophecy, which is Isaiah 7:14.
None of us have a problem with you concerning this verse. It states that Mary was a virgin. And that fulfills the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14.
But this verse does not prove in any way that Mary was sinless.
So please don't think that we disagree with you about Mary being a virgin--rather our disagreement is that the verse does not say she was sinless. I am not aware of any verse that attests to the sinlessness of Mary.
But I do believe she was a godly woman who was awaiting the coming of the Messiah. She did not know ahead of time that God would choose her to be the virgin prophesied. But her response shows that she was a woman of faith and humility and also a willingness to bow to the will of God in her life.
Enough has been written to you on Mary's spiritual condition: that she was a normal human being, coming to Earth the normal way, & attaining the same sinful condition that we all have sadly received. You have mentioned the name, the Virgin Mary, & equating that title to her 'sinlessness', & why should she be so referred to as Virgin Mary, if she wasn't pure? Apart from what others have shared, I also understand this title given (even as far back as Isaiah 7:14), refers to the fact that Mary, Joseph, those acquainted with her family & those who would come to trust in Jesus as the Messiah, would know that it was God alone Who did this miraculous work of impregnating Mary with His Holy Seed. There were many virgin women in Israel at that time, & all had to have sexual relations with their husbands to conceive. But Mary was an exception: her Seed came directly from God, untainted with a sin nature, & she would be used as the means to fulfil prophecy & bring a Man, fully Divine, into the World. Hence, I see that the title, Virgin Mary, applying to this fact: that this was a miracle from God.
What you read in Matthew 1:23 "...they shall call his name Emmanuel...", is taken from Isaiah 7:14, where God gives a prophetical word to wicked King Ahaz of Judah, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
Does this verse in Isaiah in conflict with Matthew 1:25, "And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS?" When we study the names or titles attributed to Jesus, such as Immanuel, we learn that there is significance in giving each of these names. For example, the prophecy in Isaiah 9:6, tells us, "unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace." Here is a whole list of names attributed to the coming Jesus & though they are descriptive of the Character & Work of this One from Glory, I don't believe that anyone ever used those names, even in the Greek, when speaking to Jesus.
Likewise, when the prophecy was given in Isaiah 7:14, it was about the Name that Jesus' Coming would bring, i.e. Immanuel, or in Hebrew, 'with us is God'. And of course, this ties in beautifully with Isaiah 9:6, that Jesus IS the Mighty God (i.e. He not only comes from God, but out of God's Being, wholly Divine, & in His incarnation, wholly Human).
And you could look up Jeremiah 23:5,6 & see two other Names by which Jesus is identified: the Righteous Branch & The LORD our Righteousness (in Heb. Yahweh Sid-qenu), i.e. God's Name attributed to His Son Jesus, the Christ.
So, Jesus is His Name (in Heb. Yehoshua, or Joshua): the LORD is Salvation, but He can have many Names attributed to Him, each one depicting Who He is, and Immanuel is just one Name given to Him.
2Kings 5,
2Kings 8, notice 2Kings 8:12,13, 2Chronicles 24:23, 2Chronicles 28:5,23,
Isaiah 7:8,9, Isaiah 8:4, Isaiah 10:9, Isaiah 17, James 1:5,
In the New Testament it's the road to Damascus was the place of Saul's conversion to Paul: Acts 9, Acts 22, Acts 26, it's symbolic to many Christians as a turning point in Christian faith.
Hopefully these are helpful in your study
Or, did the Father create a male seed and place it into Mary's fallopian tube to join her egg with the Son simultaneously taking upon Himself the humanity of this first cell union? Or, did the Jesus put Himself into the male seed the Father created to then impregnate Mary? In Genesis 3 it is said that the "seed" of the woman will crush the serpent. Was this referring to the completed person of Jesus or to the divinely created "seed"? So many questions that we will most likely not find the answer to until heaven. But even though we do not scientifically know the workings of this miracle conception, we believe it. We know that it fulfills prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 "Behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called "Immanuel."'
The fulfillment of prophecy helps us in too be sure of our belief in this extraordinary, miraculous, unique, one-time-only, divine event.
Prophecy also spoke that the Messiah would be a descendant of David, which Jesus was through Mary. ( 2 Sam. 7:12-13.; Ps. 131:11; Jer. 23:5.) So does this mean that Jesus had the DNA of Mary (in the X) and then the DNA of God (in the Y)?
Or did the Father create Davidic DNA in the zygote He created? Either way, because lineages were well kept by the Jews, especially those in the line of David, due to the Messiah coming from him, we can read in Matthew 1:1 that Jesus was the descendant of David. He bona fide manhood (man in essence and nature).
But also, the Scriptures tell us that He also possessed Godhood (God in essence and nature. Is. 9:6 prophesied that this Son born to the virgin would be God in the flesh. "For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulders And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."
So this verse tells us that an actual flesh and blood human child will be born, but also that a divine Son would be given by the Father.
The genealogical descendants as you will observe are listed in Matthew from Joseph; but in Luke they are from Mary's lineage.
One point that is brought out in Matthew is the census; clearly the lineage of each family was well known in the list of descendants. There are some complexities involved which on a surface level may appear to be discrepancies. Nonetheless; the whole history of the O.T. had to have descendants for the Messiah to come through certain individuals. David was promised according to Mark 12:36 (referring to an O.T. scripture) that Messiah would be in his lineage.
The whole Christian faith hinges on God coming in the form of a man who could live as we did but without sin; and becoming the final atoning sacrifice. The O.T. sacrifices have been gone for nearly 2000 years; the occurrence of the curtain tearing in the Temple happened when Christ died. He had to overcome death and was Resurrected as well; all prophesied events. (See Luke 23:44-45). The virgin birth was promised in Isaiah 7:14. Christ had to not be born with the sin nature which all sons of Adam had (so wasn't from natural human seed). He had to take on our sins as the sacrificial lamb.
He had to be God (as God the Son and part of the eternal Godhead demonstrated as early as the Book of Genesis where God created man in "our image" ( Genesis 1:26). Only God can forgive; and Christ stating that He was the "I am" ( John 8:58) showed He was truly God as only God can forgive sins.
Here is just a few of many.
Genesis 3:15. And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and ( HER SEED;) it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise ( HIS HEEL.)
Genesis 22:18.
Genesis 49:10.
The Passover Lamb of God ( Exodus 12:1-28)
Leviticus teaches the way to God is by sacrifice. JESUS!
Leviticus 17:11. For the life of the flesh is in the blood: and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls: for it is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul.
In the book of Leviticus you see a portrait of Christ and his work on the cross. When studying it.
It does well to go back and forward to new testament and present Christ. Especially Hebrews, That picture will paint itself.
Deuteronomy 18:15.
Psalms 22.
Isaiah 7:14.
Isaiah 9:6-7.
Micah 5:2.
Daniel 9:25-26.
Malachi 3:1.
I hope this helps.
God bless.
Then Matthew confirms that this would happen because of the prophecy that went before Jesus (i.e. in Isaiah 7:14), that His Name will be called, Immanuel. So, it seems that Matthew is giving further proof from prophecy that what the Holy Spirit was about to do was entirely from God and not man - i.e. Jesus would be Immanuel, God with us. So, Jesus is His Name, but Immanuel explains His Origin and Coming to the World.
Matthew 1:23 is a quote from Isaiah 7:14 a prophecy of the coming of the Messiah. In Matthew 1:25 we see Joseph named Him JESUS. The Hebrew name is Yehoshua the shorter Yeshua, a Greek form of Joshua a derivative of the word Hoshea meaning Yahweh saves.
His name became Iesous in Greek because of the Greek alphabet and from there to Latin, so the modern name Jesus comes from the Latin word Iesus which does not mean hail Zeus. If we call and pray in the name of the English word Jesus, I think God understands what we are saying. I am sure in all the other languages in the world there are many names for our savior.
Some things have entered into traditions and interpretations, but this is not one of them.
Hope this helps.
God bless,
RLW
Woman's seed = Isaiah 7:14, Matthew 1:23, Luke 1:26-37,
Son of wickedness = 1Samuel 25:17, John 8, Luke 22:3, John 13:2,
Matthew 4, Matthew 9:32-33, Matthew 23:25-39,
Don't be in fear. 1John 4:18, Luke 12:5, Psalms 34:9, Exodus 20:20, James 4:7,
The enmity Jesus faced: John 19:6,
* Matthew 12,
Isaiah 7:14. Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Also Matthew 1:20-23. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
I hope this helps.
God bless.
"mighty God" = Jesus as a baby is called God.
Titus 2:13-14 "Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works."
"God and our Savior Jesus Christ"
Isaiah 7:14 - Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us"
1 Timothy 3:16 "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory."
"God was manifest in the flesh" = this is Jesus, who was manifest in the flesh. John 1:14
Revelation 19:13-16
"his name is called The Word of God" = Jesus.
"and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God." = Jesus
"And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS." = Jesus
John 1:1 clearly says the "Word was God."
"Lord" also means deity or God.
"But Jesus prayed to God so how can He be God?"
Because the Bible says He is. Jesus has always been Jn 1:2 and relegated Himself to become a temporary man in the flesh prayed to God the Father. Just because He prayed as a temporary man does not automatically mean He wasn't God, the Son. 1 John 5:7
Philippians 2:9-11
"Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."
A few verses before in 2 Peter 1:11 it says "Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ." Do you believe Jesus is your Lord and Savior?
Do you know what "Lord" means?
The same old straw man fallacy shows up again that God the Son isn't God the Father, but no one is claiming that. This attack on Jesus is repeated so much it seems to fall into the disingenuous and lie territory.
God is powerful enough to do what you don't comprehend as a man. Whether you comprehend that or not doesn't change reality or the truth. The Bible says that in John 1 the 'word was God' and was there at the beginning, so do you believe it?
More of God's truth about God:
Luke 4:34 - "Saying, Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus of Nazareth? art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art; the Holy One of God."
Luke 4:12 after satan put Jesus to the test Jesus says "Do not put the Lord your God to the test."
Isaiah 7:14 - Jesus is called Immanuel which means "God with us"
Isaiah 42:5 "Thus saith God the LORD..."
Isaiah 42:8 "I am the LORD: that is my name..."
Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom."
Godhead:
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
John 1:18
God is we and us plural:
Genesis 1:26
If the Bible flat out said Jesus is God like it does would you believe it?
Where are the verses that say Jesus isn't God the Son? (none)
Where are the verses saying Jesus IS God the Son (above, numerous)
And where are the verses where Jesus verbally denied being God? (none)
"I AM" John 8:56-59
John 10:30
John 8:19
Philippians 2:5-8
2 Corinthians 5:19
John 1:3
Matthew 28:19
1 Peter 1:2
2 Corinthians 13:14
Deuteronomy 6:4
John 14:10
John 20:28
1 John 2:22-24
Matthew 1:23-25
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
Isaiah 7:14
Hebrews 1:8
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 43:11
John 17:5
John 17:21
Is Jesus Christ God?
Matthew 1:23 is the fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14 which reads, "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, (God with us). How can that be if Jesus is not God? Matthew is presenting to us the fact that the birth of Christ fulfilled prophecy, which is Isaiah 7:14.
A virgin was conceived by the Holy Spirit. That's what Joseph came to understand. And when Joseph made that last final procedure of adopting Jesus by giving Him His name Jesus, Jesus Christ became the legal heir to the throne of David. That's when it became official. So it didn't come from Joseph. Even some Jews were expecting Messiah to come from a virgin. Very interesting!
Part 2
In Matthew 1:20-21 we have the account of the angel of the Lord appearing to Joseph in a dream telling him that Mary will become pregnant by the Holy Spirit and the child will be called Jesus (Jesus means YHWH is salvation), for He will save His people from their sins.
And goes on to say in vs 22-23 that this event will fulfill the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14
"Behold a virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel," which is translated, "God with us."
This verse says that Jesus is YHWH and that He is Immanuel (God with us). So, for me, I believe that Jesus is God, the Father is God, and the Spirit is God comprising a Godhead of three distinct Persons in one Godhead.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
Who is the Word?
John 1:14-15 says the Word is Jesus. Does anyone deny that the Word is Jesus?
If someone believes John 1:14, then do they believe John 1:1
"...the Word was God."
"...[Jesus] was God."
JESUS.
WAS.
GOD.
John 1:1
This is God's Word.
Some here are saying "Jesus was NOT God" despite John 1:1 clearly saying Jesus WAS God. I'd like to know exactly how someone can believe in all other verses of the Bible except this one? If something WAS something, that seems to offer little room for interpretation. It means it's the same, does it not? So, if something WAS something, how does someone twist this into believing it says something WAS NOT something?
It then must be asked: since it takes so much effort to take a sentence something WAS something to turn it into: something WAS NOT something, what is the true underlying motive here? Does God's Word carry the most weight and influence or does something else?
This is eerily similar to Gen 3:4 where satan denied what God said and claimed that they shall NOT surely die. Satan loves opposites and this seems to have his signature, does it not?
I welcome any perspective I'm missing, but do not consider anything other Bible verses as valid evidence. God's Word is all that matters and because there's already numerous verses supporting that Jesus is God like John 1:1 then that is what is true. Lastly, why not just pray and ask God directly to know the truth? Genuinely ask!
1 John 5:7-8
John 10:30
John 8:19
Genesis 1:26
Genesis 11:6-7
(plural "us")
Philippians 2:5-8
2 Corinthians 5:19
John 1:3
Matthew 28:19
1 Peter 1:2
2 Corinthians 13:14
Deuteronomy 6:4
John 14:10
John 20:28
1 John 2:22-24
Matthew 1:23-25
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
Isaiah 7:14
Hebrews 1:8
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 43:11
This is an interesting logical argument. I find that in 1 Peter 3:22. Let's assume for argument's sake that your conclusion is correct and you get 1 point for this.
But for every verse you cite, there are even more that say that Jesus IS God, like John 1:1 saying the "Word was God" and verse 14 that Jesus is the Word.
This could continue to play out and you can cite any number of verses to support your position, but again we don't run out of very compelling verses saying that Jesus is God.
Let's say that it's a dead even race. 30 verses suggesting Jesus isn't vs 30 verses suggesting He is.
Then what? Which do you choose to believe?
I don't know if you've gone through this exercise or not, but I now have a spoiler: someone will run out of verses supporting that Jesus "isn't" God long before the verses supporting He IS God. Not only that, but each of the verses commonly cited to claim that Jesus "isn't" God require some extra creative interpretation and human logic whereas the verses supporting the other side can be read and interpreted more literally. Not only that, but there's logical explanations for why Jesus called His Father God. The main reason is that He temporarily became a human being and limited His power. Phil 2:6-7. So, yes, as a man, He prayed to His Father and called Him God. So, all verses must be considered as a whole, not cherry picked in order to have understanding about the Godhead and I admit it is hard to comprehend as we don't have anything like it in on earth. But perhaps like an orange with seeds, pulp, skin. Someone calls pulp an orange, and it is.
1 John 5:7-8
John 10:30
John 8:19
Genesis 1:26
, Genesis 11:6-7 (plural "us")
Philippians 2:5-8
2 Corinthians 5:19
John 1:3
Matthew 28:19
1 Peter 1:2
2 Corinthians 13:14
Deuteronomy 6:4
John 14:10
John 20:28
1 John 2:22-24
Matthew 1:23-25
Colossians 2:9
Acts 17:29
Romans 1:20
Isaiah 7:14
Hebrews 1:8
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 43:11