It shows that Jesus was not God. Compare John 20:28. Jesus did not rebuke Thomas because as the writter of this chapter explained in the following verses who Jesus was. The son of God. John20:31
I love the story of Jesus, from the beginning to the end. Jesus said, I am the way the truth and the light. He also said, "After me there would be no more".
If I can follow in Jesus ways in truth and faith then my soul would be favored by God! Everyday is a trial, but I will never cease trying to do the will of God. It is also written that God and me are the mojority. (Saying all you need is God, to fight all your battles, take away all your worries, sorrow, and stress). OH how I love Thee!
Peace Be To Us All, and May God smile upon His children always and forever.
Does Thomas exclamation at John 20:28 prove that Jesus is truly God? Thomas answered him,'My Lord and my God! There is no objection to reffering to Jesus as "God,"if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as "gods."( John 10:34,35,RS; Ps 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:1(NW)Jesus is referred as the only-begotten god. Isaiah 9:6(RS) also prophetically descibes Jesus as "Mighty God," but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus' being described as " a god," or "divine at John 1:1. The context help us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus' death, Thomas had herd Jesus' prayer in which he addressed his father as "the only true God."(John17:3) After Jesus' resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: "I am ascending...to my God and your God." ( John 20:17,RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name."( John 20:31,RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas'exclamation that Jesus is himself "the only true God" or that Jesus is a Trinitarian "God the Son" he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs.17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs.31).
John 1:1,RS:" In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God and the word was God[also KJ,JB,Dy,Kx,NAB]" NE reads "what God was,the Word was." Mo says" the logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine."The interlinear rendering of ED is a god was the word."NW reads the Word was a god";NTIV uses the same wording.
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite artical(the)appears before the first occurrence of theos'(God) but not before the second. The articular (when the artical appears) construction of the noun point to an identity, a personality, wheras a singular anarthrous (with out the artical) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) point to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus)was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather,that the word was godlike,divine,a god. What did the Johm mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himslf god or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one["no man ,"KJ,Dy]has ever seen God; the only son ["the only begotten god NW],Who is in the bosom of the Father,he has made known."(RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ,the Son? Of course! So, then ,was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Towards the end of his Gospel,John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ[not God] the Son of God."- John 20:31.RS.
I thank God for letting his son come into this world to save the people some believe some recieve and some people will never unterstand the word of God study to show yourself aproved unto god a workman that need not to be a shame but rightly devide the word of truth 2Tim2;15
I think that we all need to pray to God for understanding of his word. There seems to be mass confusion here. The word plainly states; The Father, The Son, and The Holy Ghost, and these three are one. I was wondering why the disciples had such a hard time understanding what Jesus was telling them. Even when he said, the person he gave the sopped bread to would be the person who betrayed him, they still didn't get it. I suppose some people have ears but cannot hear, and eyes yet cannot see. People pray without ceasing. Be blessed.
Can one be with one and be one at the same time. verse 2 reafirms that the Word was with God.
Verse 18 says no NO ONE has seen God at ANY time!
Jesus explained him. Seeing Jesus was LIKE seeing
God because he was "the image of the invisible God
the first born of every creature" ( Col 1:15,2 Cor 4:4 Heb 1:3) in this way it can be said " I and the Father are one" ( John 10:30) & "he that has seen me has seen the Father" ( John 14:9) There is no mystery. Jesus is the the SON of the one and only true God ( John 17:3) He himself said I ascend unto my father and your father; and to my God and your God.( John 20:17)
This reasoning harmonizes with the whole Bible with no contradictions.
Scriptures I like disputing the trinity John 1 verse 2; John 1:14; John 20: 17; 1 John 1: 1-3; John 5: 26, 36, 37. Just a few.
Why did God’s prophets not teach it?
WHY, for thousands of years, did none of God’s prophets teach his people about the Trinity? At the latest, would Jesus not use his ability as the Great Teacher to make the trinity clear to his followers? Would God inspire hundreds of pages of Scripture and yet not use any of this instruction to teach the Trinity if it were the “central doctrine” of faith?
Are Christians to believe that centuries after Christ and after having inspired the writing of the Bible, God would back the formulation of a doctrine that was unknown to his servants for thousands of years, one that is an “inscrutable mystery” “beyond the grasp of human reason,” one that admittedly had a pagan background and was “largely a matter of church politics”?
The testimony of history is clear: The Trinity teaching is a deviation from the truth, an apostatizing from it.
Jesus cleary says he is the Almighty in revelation! There is one God 3 eternal beings. Jesus is God in the flesh, this is why he is equal to the Father in nature but separate in personality. He is the Son beccause he is submissive to the Father.
only God can forgive sins in the gospel sense.Could it be The Lord Jesus was talking about the disciples forgiving others who sinned against them? - as he did "father forgive them,they don't know what they are doing"
The true meaning of this scripture is getting "lost in translation" as many have brought out. John clears up this debate when he summarizes the main idea of his book in John 20:31 which says “But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.”
So Jesus is the Son, not God himself. Jesus said “The Son is not greater than the Father” which doesn’t support the Trinitarian belief that they are the same and equal. In verse 14, John calls Jesus the only begotten. Begotten is a term used in the Bible when referring to offspring, something or someone created. God has no beginning or a creator so Jesus having been created cannot be God. He is the only begotten because he was Gods first direct creation and all other things God made through Jesus.
It says clearly in John 20:31. That Jesus is the son of God. Not the Almighty God. You are not wrong in saying that Jesus is a god, but he is not the Almighty God. 1 Corinthians 8:5-6 says that there are many gods and many lords but there is one God the Father. Satan is even refered to as a god, also idols, and other things people give their devotion to such as money. but they of course are not the Almighty God, The Father. So Jesus is a god but not The God.
If you don't beleive that Jesus was God then you shall die in your sins i am batized in the name of Jesus so my sin are remitting Act 2:38 read 1 Timothy 3:16 and read yourself If Jesus wan'nt God then who was he Jesus was manifest in the flesh God is a sprit a sprit could'nt die for us so God made hisself become a son to die for our sins he is the one Timothy talks about Jesus did all those things
i,m a one God tounge talking born again beliver baptised in the name of jesus christ for the remission of my sins. timothy 1 3:16 tells u who JESUS was and is. here ole israel the lord our GOD is one LORD.
The Iglesia Ni Cristo which was founded by the Manalo's claiming that Jesus Christ is not fully God but He is fully man because in other form Jesus Christ is Manalo. And in this verse they are saying Thomas was just shocked so he called Jesus My Lord & My God! But blesses be those recognizing Jesus Christ is Fully God!
If I can follow in Jesus ways in truth and faith then my soul would be favored by God! Everyday is a trial, but I will never cease trying to do the will of God. It is also written that God and me are the mojority. (Saying all you need is God, to fight all your battles, take away all your worries, sorrow, and stress). OH how I love Thee!
Peace Be To Us All, and May God smile upon His children always and forever.
John 1:1,RS:" In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God and the word was God[also KJ,JB,Dy,Kx,NAB]" NE reads "what God was,the Word was." Mo says" the logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine."The interlinear rendering of ED is a god was the word."NW reads the Word was a god";NTIV uses the same wording.
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite artical(the)appears before the first occurrence of theos'(God) but not before the second. The articular (when the artical appears) construction of the noun point to an identity, a personality, wheras a singular anarthrous (with out the artical) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) point to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus)was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather,that the word was godlike,divine,a god. What did the Johm mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himslf god or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one["no man ,"KJ,Dy]has ever seen God; the only son ["the only begotten god NW],Who is in the bosom of the Father,he has made known."(RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ,the Son? Of course! So, then ,was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Towards the end of his Gospel,John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ[not God] the Son of God."- John 20:31.RS.
Verse 18 says no NO ONE has seen God at ANY time!
Jesus explained him. Seeing Jesus was LIKE seeing
God because he was "the image of the invisible God
the first born of every creature" ( Col 1:15,2 Cor 4:4 Heb 1:3) in this way it can be said " I and the Father are one" ( John 10:30) & "he that has seen me has seen the Father" ( John 14:9) There is no mystery. Jesus is the the SON of the one and only true God ( John 17:3) He himself said I ascend unto my father and your father; and to my God and your God.( John 20:17)
This reasoning harmonizes with the whole Bible with no contradictions.
John 1 verse 2; John 1:14; John 20: 17; 1 John 1: 1-3; John 5: 26, 36, 37. Just a few.
Why did God’s prophets not teach it?
WHY, for thousands of years, did none of God’s prophets teach his people about the Trinity? At the latest, would Jesus not use his ability as the Great Teacher to make the trinity clear to his followers? Would God inspire hundreds of pages of Scripture and yet not use any of this instruction to teach the Trinity if it were the “central doctrine” of faith?
Are Christians to believe that centuries after Christ and after having inspired the writing of the Bible, God would back the formulation of a doctrine that was unknown to his servants for thousands of years, one that is an “inscrutable mystery” “beyond the grasp of human reason,” one that admittedly had a pagan background and was “largely a matter of church politics”?
The testimony of history is clear: The Trinity teaching is a deviation from the truth, an apostatizing from it.
So Jesus is the Son, not God himself. Jesus said “The Son is not greater than the Father” which doesn’t support the Trinitarian belief that they are the same and equal. In verse 14, John calls Jesus the only begotten. Begotten is a term used in the Bible when referring to offspring, something or someone created. God has no beginning or a creator so Jesus having been created cannot be God. He is the only begotten because he was Gods first direct creation and all other things God made through Jesus.