Luke
King James Version (KJV)
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In that hour Jesus rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father; for so it seemed good in thy sight.
It's the same spirit of the pharisees, the mystery of iniquity, that rejects truth and cleaves to the teachings of men. This is why Jesus said:
Mark 4:9
And he said unto them, He that hath ears to hear, let him hear.
Praise the Lord for ears to hear and eyes to see o/!
I have a brother who often says: if someone grew up on a deserted island and all they had was a kjv bible, they would never come up with the heretical idea of a "trinity" of gods.
Be encouraged Sacha, and pay no mind to the gainsayers/theologians. They must be born again of the seed (the word of God- 1 Peter 1:23) to see the truth, and only God can do that.
I pray that you are well this day, in Jesus' name.
P.S. I'd love to hear from you concerning your baptism in 1996 (as to how it was administered) if you care to email me, my address is just my screenname on here @ gmail (this app won't let you post addresses on here)
I just read Deuteronomy 6:4. Would I be misreading it if I believe it is referring to God as Lord? Also, Does God alone have all authority over heaven and earth?
God gives us one gift, His Spirit. I agree with you in that "God shall choose what gifts to bloom through His Holy Ghost in all His different members of the body of Christ. By His Will."
It's through His Spirit who has the ability and capacity to do all these things through us that we call "gifts." And yes indeed, I fully agree that it is by His will, not ours!
I am looking at 1 Corinthians 12:1 that says But covet earnestly the best gifts: and yet shew I unto you a more excellent way.
I can see where the confusion comes in. We look at that and we think that we are supposed to seek for and ask God to give us the best gifts/s. But God only gives us one gift, His Spirit. I mean if God sovereignly gives according to His will, it doesn't make any difference what we ask for, right? He does what He wants. And that's the emphasis!
The last phrase, "And yet I shew I unto you a more excellent way."
Paul has already talked about the ministry of the one Spirit of God who He Himself has all the abilities and capacities. And God sovereignly ministers to me and through me, by His one Spirit, through various expressions of grace according to His will.
It's very simple until we start getting into the teachings that twist things like that last verse. People will say that God wants you to come and ask for the "best gifts" for yourself. But that's not what it's making reference to!
If you're a Christian and don't believe Jesus is Lord then that is mystifying. If you don't believe in the many scriptures in the Bible that say not only Jesus is the son of God, but is God, then that is mystifying. You are in the minority who believe that. Many think saying such things as what you just said is a heresy, but I wouldn't go so far- I think it's just misunderstanding in the same way the other person did. Much of it involves falsely assuming a format like this: "Jesus has one title, therefore he can't (with my own human interpretation) have other titles, because my personal reasons." You suggested that Jesus is not Lord, but that's a foundational belief in Christianity and is throughout the Bible. It's sad that someone has to also assume false motives of another Christian too. Did you pray to God the Father about this before posting such controversy?
Examples of Jesus is Lord: Link
Romans 10:9
Romans 6:23
Philippians 2:10-11
Luke 6:46
Isaiah 44:6
John 13:13
1 Thessalonians 4:16
2 Timothy 1:8
Acts 16:31
1 Corinthians 12:3-5
Did you reach each of the above?
Romans 10:9 for example says: ""That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."" - some translations word it as "...if you will confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord..."
Deut 6:4, Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:
This verse is similar to: 1 John 5:7-8, John 10:30, and John 1:1, John 1:14, and so many others that say Jesus is God. This doesn't mean Jesus is God the Father, but Jesus is God the Son.
When it says "we are one" that does not mean they are separate. It means they are one. So, when a man says they can't be one, or Jesus is separate somehow, because it says they are 'one' that idea self-contradicts itself. I believe the Bible as it is written.
Isaiah 9:6 ..... HIS NAME shall be called
Christ bears the NAME of his Father just as we bear the name of our earthly father; but the Father (through Jesus) gives us a new name. We will bear the name of our true Father.
Revelation 2:17 .... To him that overcometh .......I (the Father) will give him (the overcomer) a white stone (the cornerstone, Christ) and in the (new) stone (us) A NEW NAME written, which no man knoweth SAVING HE THAT RECEIVED IT.
I Know HIS wisdom and HIS understanding will grace you with the answer.
Romans 8:29
Revelation 22:13
Ephesians 2:15
Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the word unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
May you continue in your seeking truth , And sharing it .
You have good clarity of thought and good bible understanding, a few points I may not agree with but I never met anyone I fully agree with either. But those things can be worked on .
But outright error is not of God that many have , unknowingly , because they look to men for answers , and not in Gods word .
But When God the father wants to do something or use someone, no one can prevent him from his will .
Remember Jesus said God could raise up stones to worship as Jesus came into Jerusalem on a donkey ?
With God all things are possible, he proves that often .
If God chooses to use anyone he will equip and use them .
So John the man was used by God , read about it ...
God seems to enjoy doing the impossible for those that trust him . How about the parting of the Red Sea ! That's contrary to the laws of nature . So many examples in the bible .
With all due respect, I've given you the word of God, not my interpretation, and you have rejected it choosing to cleave to the witchcraft/theology of rome and her 501c3 seminary indoctrinated sorcerers.
The problem here is when I read John 1:1, "and the Word was God"; I believe it as it is written, the written (yes every word of the kjv) or spoken word/logos was God (in the beginning it was only spoken). The Word was with God and the Word was God. Verily in the same way my Word also is with me and I am my Word, it represents me.
But when you read John 1:1, you believe the word; Word: actually means Son of God or Christ. This is because you have been taught to believe this by Rome. This is called witchcraft, the purposeful twisting of words to mean something other than what they mean.
God didn't die on a cross.
God cannot die, and has never been born. He is without beginning or ending.
The Holy Spirit is eternal.
The son of God, the man Christ Jesus( 1 Tim. 2:5) died on a cross, and God resurrected him.
Yes Jesus Christ was a man.
But he wasn't just any man, he was the son of God born without sin, because the Holy Spirit was his Father and a virgin was his mother, therefore he was not born under the curse of Adam, and he lived a sinless life yet being tempted in all the ways we are so he would be the sinless sacrifice for all humanity.
He was also that prophet spoken of by God to Moses:
Deuteronomy 18:18
18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
Just because He spoke the words of His Father (as you referenced John 8:58), does not make Him a "person of the godhead". Many prophets spoke the word of God and didn't claim to be part of the godhead. That is heresy. The word godhead is a singular word, not plural and there are no "persons" in it.
This is your final admonition to come out of Babylon (rome).
Be well.
This is how Jesus and the Father are one:
By the Holy Spirit (who is His Father) dwelling in Him.
That same Holy Spirit dwells in Christians and causes them to speak in tongues & prophesy.
Praise the Lord!
So, it sounds like you don't believe Jesus is God, despite the scripture clearly saying that in these scriptures and elsewhere: John 10:30, John 1:1, 1 John 5:7-8. Jesus is the Word and the Word is God is 100% clear to even children readers.
The first piece of evidence you used to claim He's not God is Matthew 16:15-17 saying He's the Son of God. But these aren't mutually exclusive. It sounds like you're assuming Jesus somehow can't be both God and the son of God. That's not much different than someone claiming God the Father can't be God, because He's the Father. So, I think your interpretation of this being 'evidence' that Jesus isn't God is a false assumption.
2 Corinthians 5:19 - God in Christ. That too doesn't mean Christ isn't God's son or isn't God. That involves making yet another assumption.
John 20:17 - this is your strongest piece of evidence, but again, I believe you have to make another false assumption and ignore earlier in the same book where it clearly says the Word (Jesus) was God. How can you refute that verse so easily. The Bible says Jesus is God in many places, He had the power of God to perform miracles, He died for you, and you prefer to ignore the parts of John that say He's God in favor of the part that says His father is God to draw such a conclusion. Just because you have a hard time understanding the trinity doesn't mean one must rush to such a conclusion to disregard John 1:1, John 1:14, John 8:58, Titus 2:13, Matthew 1:23, etc.
One thing I do agree with you on is to not trust man's interpretation. That's why I don't trust your interpretation, but trust what the Bible says. God bless you.
When he was returned to his Glory he addresses his self the way he did in the old testament.
Isaiah 9:6(KJV) For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, (((THE MIGHTY GOD, THE EVERLASTING FATHER, THE PRINCE OF PEACE ))).
Can someone tell me why is the SON called the everlasting FATHER inIsaiah 9:6??
Look at the opening of Revelation 1:1.
( The Revelation of Jesus Christ.)
""The unveiling "" The climatic declaration of who he is.
Look how he declares himself to John.
Revelation 1:8I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, ((THE ALMIGHTY!!))
Here is how Almighty is defined in Revelation:
Greek:
Transliteration: pantokratr
Pronunciation: pan-tok-rat'-ore
Definition: From G3956 and G2904; the all ruling that is God (as absolute and universal sovereign): - Almighty Omnipotent.
KJV Usage: Almighty(9x), omnipotent(1x).
Occurs: 10
In verses: 10
"" ME AND MY FATHER ARE ONE""
May I ask; unto what were you baptized and have you received the gift of the Holy Ghost (as evidenced by speaking in an unknown tongue) ?
15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?
16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.
17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
- Matthew 16:15-17
Jesus is the Son of God.
Do you see?
He's not the pagan babylonian/roman "god the son"
2 Corinthians 5:19
King James Version
19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
The Holy Scriptures proclaim
God was in Christ.
Not God was Christ. Or Christ was God.
This is why Jesus told Mary after he was risen:
John 20:17
Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God
Jesus had a Father and a God and that God was in Him and in Heaven @ the same time.
When you say Jesus was fully God you exalt the flesh and create an idol for yourself.
All the pagan religions have a trinity: starting with the original mystery of iniquity in Babylon (nimrod semiramis and tammuz) to Hinduism, greek gods, roman gods etc.
Christian's only believe in one God, the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ who is the Holy Spirit.
The verses you referenced speak nothing of a "trinity" of Gods. 1 John 5:7 is speaking of God the Father who is in heaven.
And 1 John 5:8 is speaking of the blood covenant by baptism of water and Spirit on the earth.
John 8:31-32
Trust in the word and forsake the teachings of deceived men.
Be well, in Jesus' name
Here's what the scripture declares: John 10:30. John 1:1. 1 John 5:7-8.
The heresy of claiming Jesus didn't become man and wasn't who he said he was even occurred back in Jesus' times and is even in the Bible! 1 John 4:2; 2 John 7. It literally calls these people spreading the lies the antichrist.
So, the Bible clearly says that Jesus is God and was fully man. Since it says that, the phrase Jesus was fully God and fully man sounds true. Just because the phrase in that word order doesn't appear in the Bible doesn't mean it's not 100% true. The Bible also doesn't use the word restroom anywhere, but that doesn't mean people never had to use a bathroom or toilet.
Since it clearly says in the Bible it's true, it seems like an unusual argument to make against it being true. It doesn't seem like such an argument would come without scripture evidence or without serious prayer asking God if this is true or not, before spreading such information around. The Bible calling someone an antichrist is not a joke- that is a serious offense to mislead others and try to stir up doubt in the body of Christ. So, what is your evidence of this and have you first prayed to God and asked for confirmation if this idea contrary to scripture is "true"?
God bless...
Thank you, Carleton
I did a study in both the KJV and the Textus Receptus about gifts. I began in 1 Corinthians 12:1 where it says "Now concerning spiritual gifts." Our English bible says spiritual gifts, but the Greek does not have the word gifts.
The literal translation from the Greek text reads "Now concerning the things of the Spirit."
The things that we call "gifts," as if God is giving these gifts to us, are not gifts we receive. We are given His Spirit. That's the gift. Everything else that we call a gift, and I think there are nine things that are mentioned, they are not actually gifts that God gives us, but manifestations of His Spirit.
Throughout the NT, there is only one place that the Greek word for gift, as in giving a gift to someone is used. Every other place the word gift is used, a different Greek word is used and it describes the capacities of the Holy Spirit. Paul taught that there is one Spirit and He has all the abilities and capacities for all of the ministry things of God.
The Greek text uses two different words for our word gift. The only place I see the word gift used in the New Testament that refers to a gift that is actually given to us is the gift of the Holy Spirit.
In Acts 2:38, Peter says you shall receive the (gift) of the Holy Ghost. The word gift here is actually a gift that's given. It's the word DIDOMAI. It means to give. Every other place where the word gift is found, the word used is CHARISMA. It comes from the word CHARIS which means grace. CHARISMA is an expression of God's grace. It has nothing to do with a gift that is given to us.
The only gift we are promised and given is the gift of the Holy Spirit. All the other gifts (CHARISMA) are the capacities of God's Spirit and expressions of His grace.
Luke 7:16-39
Especially what John said from the depressing darkness of prison, awaiting death:
And John calling unto him two of his disciples sent them to Jesus, saying, "Art thou he that should come? or look we for another?" Luke 7:19
[Showing that from the least to the greatest, sometimes we have doubts in loneliness and darkness]
24: And when the messengers of John were departed, he (Jesus) began to speak unto the people concerning John, What went ye out into the wilderness for to see? A reed shaken with the wind?
25: But what went ye out for to see? A man clothed in soft raiment? Behold, they which are gorgeously apparelled, and live delicately, are in kings' courts.
26: But what went ye out for to see? A prophet? Yea, I say unto you, and much more than a prophet.
27: This is he, of whom it is written, Behold, I send my messenger before thy face, which shall prepare thy way before thee.
28: For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he.
>Thank you for enduring my posts that are about fond scripture passages that I find comforting.
Mishael
Jesus was never "fully God & fully man" (that term is not found in scripture)
The man Christ Jesus is called the Christ, because he was annointed with the holy Spirit of his Father. This is the definition of the word; Christ - the annointed one.
When was he annointed? :
Luke 3:22
And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.
This is when the fulness of the Godhead (God the Father who is the Holy Spirit - John 4:24/ Leviticus 11:44) began to dwell in the body of His Son ( Colossians 2:9).
Not at His birth.
Yes, Jesus was born of the Holy Spirit (God the Father)-( Matthew 1:18) in the womb of a virgin.
But the Holy Spirit (God) did not begin to dwell in His Son until His baptism by John in the Jordan.. and only then did Jesus begin His 3.5 year ministry of miracles signs and wonders.
This is not my opinion, this is what the scripture declares.
As you stated I believe Jesus Christ was filled with the Spirit of God since He was in Mary's womb.
God Bless.
At Jesus baptism Jesus was anointed by the father with the Holy Spirit for Jesus ministry that he finished! Amen
Anointing is for service to God .
It shows how the father is in control of the Holy Spirit ...
Without anointing by God , all is vain service . We need to walk holy lives to please God , a challenge indeed. You can not sin and be lead by the Holy Spirit , John was an exceptional man being led by the Holy Spirit from the womb . Yes John had a special service to be a light for the Lord Jesus .
When Jesus was born as a babe in the manger was he not fully God and fully man in the hands of sinful man? All fullness contained in a small vessel of flesh. Certainly he had all awareness of being fashioned as a man. The Holy Ghost His Comforter as well as His surrendered Nature.
Thank you for your reply. Although I believe you may have taken my question a little off. It wasn't why Jesus was baptized in the Jordan. Just as you stated that in Matthew 3:15 Jesus told John it was to "fulfill all righteousness".
It was just in a previous post from RTB, and at least one other, that they state that Jesus Christ was anointed with, or received, the Holy Ghost at His baptism by John. As he made a good point in Luke 1:15 how John the baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost from his mothers womb. As we know how much greater Jesus Christ is than John the baptist. Not taking anything away from how great John the baptist was.
I stated this in a post the other day about Jesus Christ and being filled with the Holy Ghost "Even at age twelve He astonished people who heard Him. He knew God was His Father then Luke 2:47-49. To me showing He did not just receive the Holy Ghost(Spirit of God) at His water baptism in the Jordan. If the sight of the Spirit descending from Heaven like a dove was just a sign for John, or for His supernatural powers, only God knows. John 1:32-34."
I hope that cleared up for you that my question was not why He was baptized but about the Holy Ghost being in Him before His water baptism. Which I believe and there is evidence to in the Scriptures.
Thank you very much for your reply Mishael. You always leave lots of helpful information.
God Bless.
I believe anyone born again can make that claim, because of we being baptized in Christ, "read Romans 6.
BUT that don't make us sinless, as long as we're in these bodies sin is there,
read Romans 7.
Not until Christ rose from the dead were we given the power over sin, ""Not sinless but nolonger running after sin"".
( Romans 8:11. But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.)
John knew himself Jesus baptism was different and he needed it
Matthew 3:14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
Before the Christ was crucified and rose again there was a dwelling of the Holyspirit for God's servants to minister but there wasn't a baptism of the Holyspirit that proceeded after the Lamb slain for the sins of the World. by which we minister and by which we are "Positionally sanctified " ( Forever cleansed from the penalty of sin)
John 1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
Romans 3:23-24. For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: