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Part 3
Jesus confirmed the last 3.5 years through His apostles ending when Stephen was killed, Paul was converted, Peter had his dream the conformation to Judah ended and the gospel was sent to the Gentiles. This fulfills the 70=weeks 490/483 years
We have been told to study, we are told to test the spirits, trust our teacher the Holy Spirit and pray. These are the six things that were determined on Judah and the holy city Jerusalem, a few verses that may help see if this has been fulfilled by Jesus.
1. To finish the transgression ( Isaiah 53:5, 8) ( Isaiah 53:11) ( Hebrews 9:15-18)
2. To make an end of sins ( Matthew 1:21) ( Hebrews 10:8-11) ( John 1:29) ( 1 Corinthians 15:3)
( 1 John 3:5) ( Psalm 32) ( Romans 8:3)
3. To make reconciliation for iniquity ( Colossians 1:20-22) ( Isaiah 53:6) ( Isaiah 53:11) ( Ephesians 2:16) ( Titus 2:14) ( 2 Corinthians 5:18-19)
4. To bring in everlasting righteousness ( Romans 5:17-21) ( Romans 3:21-26) ( 1Peter 2:24)
( 2 Corinthians 5:21) ( Isaiah 61:10-11)
5. To seal up vision and prophecy ( Daniel 9:23) ( John 6:27) ( Mark 1:14-15) ( Acts 3:18)
( John 5:36-40) ( Matthew 11:11-15)
6. To anoint the most holy ( Hebrews 8:1-12) ( Hebrews 9:6-14)
The 70 th week has been used along with other Bible verses to paint a fantastic picture of end times. The pre, mid, or post rapture of the Church, an antichrist, 7-year tribulation, 3.5-year covenant with Israel, a third temple, abomination of desolation, 3.5 years great tribulation after breaking covenant, and more. Many of these teachings started in the late 1600s. I hope this helps, if this prophecy has been fulfilled, it will show the falsehoods of these teachings because without using part of the 70 weeks prophecy given to Daniel, these teachings will fall apart.
Acts.3:18 But those things, which God before had shewed by the mouth of all his prophets, that Christ should suffer, he hath so fulfilled.
RLW
By revelation we see Mary, a living word in the realm of the Spirit was impregnated by the Word of Life, to bring forth the Son of Man, without sin. John 1:14: And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory; the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
We also understand that in the realm of the Spirit that, He the Son of Man, who was born of the Word of God was also God the Word. John 1:1: In the beginning The Word, and The Word with God and The Word God.
So by revelation we also understand, that spiritual birth of us, the sons of sinful men by the Lord Christ Jesus is similar to the role of Mary. When we accepted Jesus the Son of Man, He being God the Word was impregnated with us, and when we received Christ the Son of God, He being God the Spirit is or the Holy Spirit delivered us from the womb to become the Sons of God the Father of Eternal Life.
In order for us to become a Child of God the Lord Christ Jesus must give birth to us, by the Word and Spirit. John 3: 1 - 8.
Mary a living soul or word had to be impregnated by the Word in order to bring forth the vessel, the Son of Man, God the Word of Life.
I don't find where Ahaz asks for help or a sign as you mentioned.
But what is important, GOD TOLD HIM TO ASK AND HE REFUSED TO:
Isaiah 7:12-13. But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD.
Notice "NOW" the Lord is talking to the WHOLE HOUSE OF DAVID, ( Present and future ).
And he said, ""HEAR YE NOW, O HOUSE OF DAVID;""
Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?
TheDavidic lineor House of David (known in Hebrew as " Malkhut Bayt David - ("Kingdom of the House of David") refers to the lineage of King David through the texts in the Hebrew Bible, in the New Testament, ( AND THROUGH THE SUCCEEDING CENTURIES.) This Prophecy was/is given to the Davided Kingdom throughout all ages.
Let's look at the Matthew account.
The account considers a Virgin without having to mention the word virgin!
Matthew 1:18-23. Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph,
( BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER, SHE WAS FOUND WITH CHILD OF THE HOLY GHOST.)
Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for ( THAT WHICH IS CONCEIVED IN HER IS OF THE HOLY GHOST.)
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
( Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. )
Jesus can't be who he is without the virgin birth!!
Virgin means virgin. The Bible is already translated and accurate. If you don't believe Mary was a virgin like the Bible says, what is your reason?
There were zero other virgin births other than Jesus. Jesus = Immanuel. Jesus and God the father have many names throughout the Bible and this is one of them. It doesn't mean it would become Jesus's literal first name. The name means God with us since Jesus = God.
Isaiah 7:14 = prophesy
Matthew 1:23 = fulfillment
Luke 1:34-38 = Yes, Mary was in fact a virgin
Luke 2:7 = Jesus's birth
The night Jesus was born there were awesome displays of angels speaking to the shepherds tending their flocks in the area. They were given messages to take to Joseph and Mary.
The Archangel, Gabriel (the messenger) gave information to Mary and Joseph, directly and indirectly before and after. The message to flee into Egypt.
This should comfort us, that even tho we may not see them, angels do perform tasks as the Lord delegates on our behalf. At no time should we praise angels. They are created to serve God.
Prayers For You, Grace!
-Taylor Marcoellis
Are you claiming that the Bible is wrong simply because you don't currently understand the genealogy?
That seems like quite a logical leap and most Bible readers would disagree with such an assumption. When something isn't understood is it normal to only focus on 1 verse, and disregard what dozens of scriptures consistently say?
The Bible clearly says Joseph became the husband of Mary. That is an undisputed fact as far as I'm concerned and says this in Matthew 1:20, Matthew 1:16, etc.
It sounds like the question is who was Joseph's father? Jacob or Heli? Luke 3:23 or Matthew 1:16.
It's evident that Joseph is Heli's son-in-law. In Jewish culture it is not unusual for the son in law to be referred to simply as the son of his father in law. This custom is used in other scriptures in the Bible too where calling someone a 'son' is an endearing term, especially son-in-law.
Also, the genealogy in Matthew wasn't meant to be an exhaustive list, but a subset. Luke gave the complete genealogy and traced Christ's lineage through Mary, while Matthew traced it through Joseph.
Rather than assuming everything we don't understand is an error and spreading this around like poison, wouldn't it seem prudent to first pray and ask God for wisdom for things you don't understand, research it further and ask open questions, before trying to discredit the Bible in public based on false assumptions. Just like the fake news we see in the media today, the corrections and retractions never get the full coverage as the original falsehoods, so just like here, people likely read your remarks and drew a negative conclusion in their heart based on a false assumption and that is really sad to see this especially on a Bible website where we should be seeking God to understand the truth, not spreading lies.
Just to reply to your question about Luke 3:23 & Matthew 1:16. The other verses in the OT I have no knowledge of.
As I have found this issue also and done some research and was lead to the answer. The generations from Babylon to Christ are to be fourteen as in Matthew 1:17. The way it is written is only thirteen if "Joseph", in Matthew 1:16, is Mary's "husband". First off we know something is up as the father of Joseph, Mary's husband, in Luke 3:23 is Heli. As that is his genealogy. In Matthew 1:16 it says it is Jacob.
In Matthew 1:16 what should be written is Jacob begat Joseph the "father" of Mary.
I don't know how this mix up happened as said it is only thirteen generations from Babylon to Christ as it is written. Which is wrong to the next verse. Changing "husband" to "father" makes the generations fourteen and in line with the next verse. Also we know Joseph's(Mary's husband) father is Heli not Jacob as stated.
One man had copies of original texts of "father" not "husband" for Matthew 1:16. In another language of coarse.
Hope that helps.
God Bless.
This prophecy was determined on Daniel's people (house of Israel) and the holy city (Jerusalem).
Daniel 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
If Jesus fulfilled what was determined in this prophecy, does that make this entire theory and all that is taught in this theory untrue?
How will it change the picture if the 70th week in the book of Daniel has been fulfilled?
What is our blessed hope?
We have been told to study, trust our teacher the Holy Spirit and pray.
These are the six things that were determined, and a few verses that may help your study.
1. To finish the transgression ( Isaiah 53:5, 8) ( Isaiah 53:11) ( Hebrews 9:15-18)
2. To make an end of sins ( Matthew 1:21) ( Hebrews 10:8-11) ( John 1:29) ( 1 Corinthians 15:3)
( 1 John 3:5) ( Psalm 32) ( Romans 8:3)
3. To make reconciliation for iniquity ( Colossians 1:20-22) ( Isaiah 53:6) ( Isaiah 53:11) ( Ephesians 2:16) ( Titus 2:14) ( 2 Corinthians 5:18-19)
4. To bring in everlasting righteousness ( Romans 5:17-21) ( Romans 3:21-26) ( 1Peter 2:24)
( 2 Corinthians 5:21) ( Isaiah 61:10-11)
5. To seal up vision and prophecy ( Daniel 9:23) ( John 6:27) ( Mark 1:14-15) ( Acts 3:18)
( John 5:36-40) ( Matthew 11:11-15)
6. To anoint the most holy ( Hebrews 8:1-12) ( Hebrews 9:6-14)
RLW
I don't think I've posted this before but it is important and I just feel to state it to help others.
What came to me a while ago was that the generations from entering Babylon to Christ is supposed to be fourteen generations as per Matthew 1:17. When you count the three steps of fourteen generations starting from Abraham the first two are fourteen and the last one to Christ is only thirteen. It has been known some Jewish people use this to discredit Jesus of Nazareth being the Christ.
After looking into this the answer was brought to light by a man who studied this. When we get to Matthew 1:16 we see "Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary". This is where this genealogy fails as the break between Jacob and Mary. We know this is not correct as the genealogy of Joseph the carpenter, husband of Mary, is in Luke 3:23. The father of Joseph is Heli not Jacob. The answer was found in original Scriptures of Matthew which was the only one of the four Gospels to be written in Hebrew. The word "husband" used in Matthew 1:16 is incorrect. As he had pictures of the Scriptures. It is the "father" of Mary. As Joseph was a normal name that her father and husband shared. Which in turn links the genealogy back up and makes it fourteen generations as it should be.
Again, I just felt to post this as to me it is important for us to know this. As the way it is written people can use it as a weapon against Jesus Christ.
Hopefully I have brought this to light for some as others may already know this.
God Bless.
"And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins" Matthew 1:21
4 parts total of these Grace of God verse inspirations by some of my brethren.
It can be called either New Testament or New Covenant. I call it the New Testament but it would not be wrong for me to call it the New Covenant. There are several places in the "NT" where we see the word covenant and testament. Both those words in the Greek text are the words DIATHEKE, and they can be translated into English as either testament or covenant. They both mean the same thing, so it would not be wrong to call it either way!
I did a little search for you. As I cannot say when the word "covenant" was replaced with "testament" in the Holy Bible. To begin they mean the same thing. Covenant is still used in the OT over 250 times. Testament and covenant are used in the NT for the same Greek word they are translated from.
The word covenant seems to have it's origin in old French. The word testament seems to have it's root from Latin. Making their way to English.
Both meaning the same thing as a "disposition,pledge, pact, or treaty".
Hope that helps. God Bless.