Matthew
King James Version (KJV)

Viewing page: 47 of 74
< Previous Discussion Page Next Discussion Page >
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
Posting comments is currently unavailable due to high demand on the server.
Please check back in an hour or more. Thank you for your patience!
I will show you the first major problem I ran into with verses that were being used to support pre-trib teaching and it is one of many. I shelved all my unaccredited Bible College years and 30+ years of study on my own and just started reading the scriptures and asking God for truth.
Let's take this passage for example. This one woke me up. I can give dozens more but let's just go with this one brother.
Mat 24:32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
Pre-trib teachers will say that this "fig tree" here is Israel yet it has absolutely nothing to do with Israel as it is metaphoric language and just mean ALL THESE SIGNS = MY PHSYICAL RETURN. That is what a metaphor is and usually has the word "like", like as" or "such" to show it is making a comparison. Now follow me here. This isn't rocket science by any means. I then went to Luke and it proves what I am saying here. Read the passage slowly and you will see the problem. We brush over things very fast sometimes and miss it.
Luk 21:29 And he spake to them a parable; Behold the fig tree, and all the trees;
Luk 21:30 When they now shoot forth, ye see and know of your own selves that summer is now nigh at hand.
Luk 21:31 So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nigh at hand.
We have that nasty phrase "...and all the trees;" in verse 29 looking us square in the face and shows this passage is not even talking about any nation.
Mat 24:4 And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you.
Mat 24:5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many.
Who was Jesus talking to here? - Peter, James, Andrew and John. That is how Jesus started His whole discourse which the end part of Matthew 21, 22, 23 and most of beginning of 24. Always ask yourself when reading a passage, What is the What?, Who are the Who?, When was the When?, Where was the Where, and What is the Why? Then make sure you read the context. You cannot get the FULL context of chapter 24 without reading the 3 previous chapters. You will miss a lot. It is all of the Olivette Discourse. You read Matthew 24 alone and you will believe and teach a lot of things incorrectly.
There is only ONE group of Jews that I am aware of today that strictly stick to the Old Testament. They are Kirite Jews and very few. The rest of the religious ones hold to the unsaved rabbinical teachings - Talmud, Mishnah, and Gemara and is why they are unsaved. Those writings are commentaries- useless at best. 50% to 68% of Jews living in Israel today, yes today, are atheist or irreligious as their own media if you ever read their own online newspaper columns admits. So if you think they are going to read the New Testament, unless they converted to Christianity, it isn't going to happen. It will be way too late for them and after the fact when they do. The antichrist will be there soon.
Joh 5:43 I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.
Joh 5:44 How can ye believe, which receive honour one of another, and seek not the honour that cometh from God only?
Joh 5:45 Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust.
Joh 5:46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.
Joh 5:47 But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my w
I am going to have to do this in four or five parts since you are only allowed to write 2000 characters at a time.
PART 1:
Yes Matthew wrote with the Jewish mindset but so did Paul when he wrote Hebrews but it is for all of God's people. They key is WHO were these warnings given to? Obviously, those who follow Jesus so to say they are for future people who are only going to get the warnings AFTER it is too late just don't hold water. There are only ONE people of God EVER both in the Old and New Testaments. Abraham was a Syrian. He also had gentile servants. Joseph married an Egyptian and had two half-breeds Manasseh and Ephraim. 430 years later, the Israelites came out of Egypt a MIXED people the Bible teaches. It has always been about being in the covenant.
Matthew 24 was written for every generation and for THAT GENERATION of Jews especially still living in Jerusalem who God would save 40 years later when He destroyed Jerusalem through Prince Titus thus fulfilling Daniel 9 and Matthew 23 and Matthew 21. So this is a poor argument at best. There were synagogues throughout the Roman Empire that many Gentiles went to as you can see over and over in the Book of Acts. Here is just ONE of 20 verses in Acts alone.
Act_26:11 And I punished them oft in every synagogue, and compelled them to blaspheme; and being exceedingly mad against them, I persecuted them even unto strange cities.
Matthew merely wrote what Mark 13 and Luke 21 say. These other gospels were written by two of Paul's missionary companions in which Paul was the "apostle to the Gentiles". To say that Matthew was only FOR Jews because it was written with the Jewish mindset, you have to throw out the Book of Hebrews, the Book of James, the Book of Revelation (the most Old Testament TYPOLOGY book in the New Testament), and the entire Old Testament. The question is "WHO would be the ones to read it"? Only the followers of Jesus are ever going to read it.
If you type in PRE-TRIB RAPTURE: TRUE OR FALSE? I am buried even though that is my channel name. try typing in one of my actual video names. here it is Questionnaire Poll on YOUR view of End Times Theology
EXACTLY THIS WAY IN THE YOUTUBE SEARCH BOX, YOU SHOULD FIND ME.
Thumbnail picture should say "End Times Theology with Brother Bob" in this video. I corrected the thumbnail but they still have the top letters chopped off for some reason. Let me know if this works. It should as I just tried it. Get many others to join if you can.
The Bible. A preacher isn't necessary for someone to follow Jesus. Preachers don't save anyone, Jesus does. People can easily learn about Jesus from the Bible.
Acts 5:29 Then Peter and the other apostles answered and said, We ought to obey God rather than men.
Revelation Chapter 16:1 And I heard a great voice out of the temple saying to the seven angels, Go your ways, and pour out the vials of the wrath of God upon the earth.
2 And the first went, and poured out his vial upon the earth; and there fell a noisome and grievous sore upon the men which had the mark of the beast, and [upon] them which worshipped his image.
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.
Revelation 19:20 And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a lake of fire burning with brimstone.
Two other problems with that position are that if the Holy Spirit is taken away, who will convict sinners of sin? Who will Seal new Believers? Who will lead them into Truth? If the Church is taken away, who will spread the message of Christ? How can they believe without a preacher?
Most significantly, however, is that their position is not realistic. It is a fantasy developed from conjecture and feelings, rather than Scripture. What Scripture can they produce to support their point of view? None. Because there aren't any. The only places where the Bible tells us when the Rapture is going to be are all based on Christ's revelation that it will be Immediately After the Great Tribulation.
Unfortunately, their argument is superficial and based on unsubstantiated supposition. So you are exactly right, Danny. I was almost kicked out of a Bible Institute because I dared question the Administrator about the time of the Second Coming. And that was before I knew the difference. And after I preached a sermon based on Salvation by Grace, borrowed from Charles Spurgeon, the Pastor stood up, called me a liar, and told congregants not to believe anything I said. But Spurgeon was right. And so are you.
If you take it, there will be no way to gain entrance to heaven, ever.
If you don't take it, you may be executed.
Best option is to be born again today!
Go watch Dwight Thompson on youtube, preaching 'what to do if you miss the rapture'. It's an old sermon but it's very relevant. I met Dwight; he's an evangelist. He cares about people's souls. You can pray the sinners prayer at the end of the sermon.
Don't get side tracked by OPINIONS of other people.
If this happens in our lifetime and you are still here, you are going to have two choices: either take the mark of the beast and (maybe) live for another 3-1/2 years, or refuse to take the mark. Those are your two choices. If you take the mark, you will be part of the antichrist's religious and economic system, which will allow you to buy food and the things you need to survive for that short period of time. Taking that mark will also mean that you have chosen to worship the antichrist. But if you refuse to take the mark, you will be killed, probably beheaded. But just keep in mind that if you choose to take the mark to save your life here, you will no longer have an opportunity for salvation. If you take the mark, you will end up in the lake of fire. If you are faced with that decision, you might want to choose Christ!
Youtube? Is that a good source to get bible truth from?
I suppose that's where we differ. You believe that the message Christ was giving in Matt. 24-25 was to the church, and I believe He was giving this warning to the Jewish people. I can share my basis of belief, but like I said, what would be the use since I'm sure you will shoot down whatever it is that draws me to the conclusion of a Pre-Tribulation rapture. I asked you in a previous thread, the one that got shut down, why do you continue hounding me about the rapture? How long are you going to drag this on? I do not have an issue with you because you believe in Post Trib. Why would you have an issue with me?
But since you think you will be taken out before that, what is your Biblical basis for that belief? Are there Scriptures you can point to that are not directly related or a repetition of what Christ describes in Matt 24?
What is the basis of your belief?
You ask if the Sermon on the Mount only applies to Jews? It was specifically given to Jesus' disciples. There were multitudes that gathered and were listening in; But Jesus specifically was giving this sermon to His disciples only. Now, are there things in Matthew Chapters 5-7 (Sermon on the Mount) that we Gentiles can benefit from? I would say yes. And if you recall in one of my previous responses, I already said that. But there are also things written specifically to the Jews that the church today tries to apply to believers that do not apply to the church. There are many teachings found in Matthew that are not found in the other Gospels. That's because Matthew's Gospel specifically pertains to the Jews.
Baptism? The Jews were baptizing long before the church came into existence. Was the O.T. for the Jews only? Originally yes, it was given to the Jews and only the Jews. We have it in our bibles today so that we can study History and Prophecy. It is the history of God working through and in His people, the children of Israel, and prophecy about the coming Messiah.
You keep bringing up that Christ is coming after the Great Tribulation. Is there a reason? I already agreed to that. Concerning the rapture, we will just have to remain in disagreement with each other on the timing. I can layout every reason why I believe in Pre-Trib, but what good would that do? There are at least three views, and no matter what view a person takes, they have scripture to back up their view, and then it becomes "I'm right, and you're wrong!"
Paul reiterates what Jesus said in 2 These 2:1-4, "Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to Him, we ask you, brothers, not to be easily disconcerted or alarmed by any spirit or message or letter seeming to be from us, alleging that the Day of the Lord has already come. Let no one deceive you in any way, for it will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness-the son of destruction-is revealed. He will oppose and exalt himself above every so-called god or object of worship. So he will seat himself in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God."
"Our being gathered together to Him" is a direct reference to the Rapture. When does he say that will be? After the Antichrist exalts himself above God. In Daniel we see the AntiChrist sits in the Holy of Holies and exalts himself above God, in the middle of the Tribulation. Hence, the Rapture will not take place until after that. But to be perfectly clear, Christ adds in Matt 24:29 that it will not only be after the AntiChrist desecrates the Temple, but Immediately After the Great Tribulation, which is the last 3 1/2 years of the Tribulation.
It goes like this:
1. AntiChrist ascends to Power
2. AntiChrist Descartes the Temple
3. The Great Tribulation
4. Defeat of Israel (Daniel)
5. The Coming of Christ and Rapture
There isn't any other place in the entire Bible that makes the time of Christ's Return so clear. We may not really know how all these troubles are spread throughout history, but we can be certain of one unequivocal thing. Christ won't Return and the Rapture won't take place, until Immediately After the Great Tribulation.
HI Jeff,
Based on your response coupled with all the other research I have done I also conclude that is it SOMEWHAT both, but with a primary and secondary interpretation. I think when a verse is confusing it is best to "keep it simple" and keep it in "context". I am thinking that when one takes v38 completely in context (especially pertaining to v37 which is telling the people at the time about the day Jesus the "Son of Man" is returning - as it relates to all the things above v 4-35) that the primary conclusion is that it is not specifically(primarily) talking about the Rapture. As we know, a lot of the bible is written to specific people at a specific time, but that also the "principal/concept" can have applications for others.
.long story to say: based on scriptural face value, it is not addressing the Rapture, but the concept of being "prepared" can apply to anyone in the church age, especially for those at the time of the anticipated Rapture.
Oh and if we take it on scriptural face value, then even though we don't understand it, we have to believe that the people affected will somehow be living life as "normal", where "normal" could be a way of saying they wont care enough to be ready.
Thanks again,
Tim
Hi Tim
Very good question. This is a question I struggled with for a very long time.
I believe that the context of Matt 24/25 is the tribulation AND the second coming. That all the events of Matt 24 are related to the time of the 7 year tribulation leading up to the second coming of Christ at the end of the 7 years. Matt 25 and the Sheep and Goat judgment is also the second coming when "the son of man comes in his glory"......
Most of the people Christ addressed were Jewish non-believers. Does that mean that the Sermon on the Mount only applies to Jews? Or that only Jews were to heed Christ's instruction for the Passover Communion? If you recall, there were no Gentiles present at the Passover. Or how about Baptism? Was that only for the Jews? Or the OT, is that for Jews only? Paul was the Apostle to the Gentiles. Peter to the Jews. Does that mean we don't take anything Peter said as applicable to Gentiles?
Matthew 24 is no more for the Jews only, than the rest of the Bible. The message is to everyone, but even more specifically for the Followers of Christ. Matthew 24:29, whether for Jews or Gentiles, is the only, the only place in the entire Bible that pin points the Return of Christ. And in it, Christ Himself says He is coming after the Great Tribulation. Jewish or not, that is a piece of information valuable to everyone. Daniel 7-12 was written to the Jews, but not for the Jews. It was written for everyone, most particularly, for Believers in Christ.
If you do a careful study of The Day of the Lord, you will find it is limited to the last moment of the Great Tribulation, not the last 3 1/2 years. Same as Wrath. You don't, but many Christians think of the entire Tribulation as The Day of the Lord. But what you say about the Rapture is what Jesus says in Matt 24:29-31. And it happens Immediately After the Great Tribulation. 1 These 4 says the same thing, but doesn't specify, as Christ did.
Your comparison between Adam and God in the Flesh (Jesus) is questionable. Christ came with a Pre-Determined Purpose. Christ is God. Christ was Mature and fully prepared. His response to the devil was, "You shall not tempt the Lord your God." James 1:13, "God is not tempted by evil" and in Acts 2:24, "death had no power to hold him". Jesus was a man. But He was God in the body of a man. Death entered the world through Adam, because Adam was weak. But life came through Jesus, the Tree of Life, the resurrection and the life.
I don't agree with your assumption that God wanted to shield Adam and Eve from Knowledge of Good and Evil, to keep them innocent. Is there a Biblical foundation for that? Additionally, you imply corruption wasn't in existence in the Garden. But didn't God send the most corrupt thing in His creation to the Garden? There were 3 things in the Garden, Man, TKGE, TL. Why was the TKGE there?
I won't debate that God created a flawed universe. He didn't. It deteriorated on its own. But think about what you said, 'I would say it was a part of His Perfect Knowledge & His Whole Plan into Eternity allowed for it."
Those questions lead me to qualify my response. God, I suppose, created mankind 'perfectly suited' for His Purpose. The Fall had to be a consequence of exposure to the elements of creation, for Christ's entrance into the world to be made possible, who according to Titus 1:2 was programmed before creation. I guess my starting point in this discussion is not Genesis, to the exclusion of everything else, but Titus, 2 Timothy 1:9, Acts 3:8, 17:3, John 20:9, Lk 24:26, 44, Rom 8:3, Heb 7:18, 10:5. From there, I look back at Genesis. but maybe you are right. Maybe God did create everything perfect.
Heb 10:1, For the law is only a shadow of the good things to come, not the realities themselves. It can never, by the same sacrifices offered year after year, make perfect those who draw near to worship.
Heb 7:11, Now if perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood...
The implication is that man was not perfect, even at the moment of creation. The first indication is that he was not Mature in his understanding. We conclude from the fact that s/he could not distinguish between good and evil, they were created in innocence. If Maturity is a sign of Perfection, they weren't. They were not, as you stated, flawed, but were they fully equipped for the task? I might be getting myself in hot water here. Example, a young persons at 30 might be in perfect health because he doesn't have any ailment or issues. But his system and capacity deteriorate. And while healthy, that might not qualify them go excel in Mountain Climbing. Adam had a mountain to climb he might not have been equipped for. The devil was crafty, astute, street wise. Adam and Eve were gullible. But that was no excuse for disobedience. In law, there is a lot of discussion about intent. Were Adam and Eve making a conscious, deliberate and calculated decision to abandon God? Or is there more to the story, we don't know? Probably. Were they better equipped than I think? Perhaps.
And as you say, "Yes, the potential to corruption is there, but God's design & execution of creation was without flaw." I am in total agreement. That is the way I see it. Now, the devil knows his days are numbered. And as you aptly claim, the devil seized the opportunity to 'test' Adam and Eve, in an attempt to destroy the work of God. So the question must be asked, was Satan successful in ruining God's perfect creation? And, why did God banish Satan to the Garden of Eden? Why not keep him as far away from His creation as possible? Maybe banish him to Mercury, Pluto or beyond. Why smack in the middle of the Garden? What was God's reason for that?
Was it to test Adam's loyalty? But if God, in His omniscience knew Adam would succumb to the tricks of the devil, why put him through that anyway? Is God so insecure that He has to 'test' His creation to make sure it is loyal to Him? Or did God have another reason for doing that?
Those questions lead me to qualify my response. God, I suppose, created mankind 'perfectly suited' for His Purpose. The Fall had to be a consequence of exposure to the elements of creation, for Christ's entrance into the world, who according to Titus 1:2 was programmed before creation, to be made possible. I guess my starting point in this discussion is not Genesis...continued P2