Psalms
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I tend to see our human flesh as totally corrupt, save for the redemptive work of our Saviour & renewed spirits to live above that corruption. I just can't see Jesus having that flesh, which he would have, if Mary contributed to his conception. But if he did have that flesh (even though never sinning), the corrupt sin nature in Him (from Mary) would preclude Him from being an acceptable Sacrifice - He could no longer be called the "Last Adam" sent from God. Every blessing Ron.
Thank you for your reply, Ron - much appreciated. If I could just address a couple of your points:
a. "If Jesus did not have the sinful flesh that came from the first Adam and Jesus was incapable of sin what did He fulfill?" You clearly referred to Matthew 5:17. Using the Greek words for 'abolish & fulfil', their meanings are: abolish = to destroy, abrogate, or to deny Divine Authority. And 'fulfil' = to complete, fill up what was predicted, accomplish what was intended by it.
When we read it as given, then we see that the Lord, in His 'sinless' condition, could indeed fulfil the Law, because His coming was not to prove His ability to be obedient to the Law but was for the purpose to bring the Law to its planned & proper completion. And this He did as the One Who not only was the Word of God (as the Word/Law/Prophecies) given to Israel, but also Who came now in human form (that Word made Flesh) to bring the Law to finality by His death, resurrection & bringing in of a better Covenant ( Hebrews 8:6,7).
b. Romans 8:3. "in the likeness of sinful flesh". Many look at this phrase as supporting the belief that Jesus had sinful flesh as we have. If that were so, then he would have the sin nature in Him as 'sinful flesh' speaks of that, in one respect. In the other respect, it could also mean that Jesus came in human flesh, resembling (likeness of) sinful flesh that he partook of flesh, or the nature of man, but without any of its sinful propensities or desires. Why would that be? Because the sin nature, which is common to man, was not found in Him. Satan's great desire was to replicate what he did to the first Adam - but the last Adam withstood him disallowing sin to enter thereby imputing the sin nature.
As I don't want to get in between you and Adams discussion. I just wanted to note one thing that I have read of in the Scriptures. Satan can tempt anyone, even God, as shown in the beginning of the book of Job. Where the sons of God(Holy angels) came to present themselves before the Lord and satan was there. Of coarse satan thinks he can get people to turn against God. Though God is always ahead of the devil. As Jesus Christ was(on earth) and is always also.
He actually temps Him twice. Once in Job 1:6-12. Then again pushing further in Job 2:1-6. He wanted to get Job to curse God. Though he fails as usual.
Maybe a way to subdue one thing you and Adam are conversing about. With "sin nature" in Jesus Christ. I believe He was part man(from Mary) and part God(from our Father in Heaven). So my answer to if He had a sin nature or not would be "yes and no". As I don't think many would really take that as an answer to that question though that is how I perceive it. Jesus Christ was like no other being that ever walked this earth.
Have a peaceful conversation my brothers in Christ.
God Bless.
I am not trying to intrude in your conversation, but reading your post, I felt inclined to share something with you about your statement "I can't get my head around why Jesus would tell Mary not to touch him."
John Chapter 20 tells us that this was right after Jesus rose from the tomb. When Mary first saw Jesus, she thought He was the gardener. But after hearing His voice, she realized it was Jesus and she grabbed onto him. And Jesus said unto her, "Touch me not."
Now it is very interesting what the text says. This is one of those instances where the English text doesn't help us out much. We read Jesus saying don't touch me, and it's like what's that all about? First of all, the word "touch" is the word HAPTO, and it means to fasten. It doesn't mean to touch as in "Don't touch me, stay away from me!" It means don't fasten yourself to me. It is a Present Imperative in the Greek text which indicates that she is already doing it. She is holding on tight and not going to let go. Jesus is not saying don't touch me. He's saying stop clinging to me.
As a matter of fact, in Matthew 28:9, Matthew tells us that she had a death grip on His ankles. She was not going to let Him out of her sight again! So He wasn't telling her "Don't touch me." He was saying let go, don't cling to me, stop clinging to me.
And there was a reason for it, He says in John 20:17, for I am not yet ascended to my Father: In other words, He is saying, and you see, here is where the changeover comes. Here's where the ministry comes in.
He has now revealed Himself as the resurrected one to Mary, and she's got this grip on Him like I'm never going to let you out of my sight again, and He is telling her, "You have to let go because I have not yet gone to the Father."
This is not going to be a physical relationship where you can see me and hear me. It's going to be by faith. So it is interesting!
I hope this might give you a better understanding of why Jesus made that statement.
I have mis-spelled my own name on some posts. I appreciate the Hebrews verse you wrote, it speaks to me and for me.
:)
Carleton
Hebrews 9:11-12 But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; 12 Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us.
Thanks, Carleton your posts are encouraging and uplifting.
God bless, Ron
It sounded like you were trying to draw a contrast between God and Jesus. This is why I pointed out the false equivalency, that Jesus only died temporarily in the flesh, not spirit. So, if someone attempted to claim that... 'God cannot die, but Jesus did therefore He isn't God', I clearly pointed out that would be a false assumption and false equivalency fallacy.
"I do not remember saying anything about soul/spirit or an afterlife that was not in this discussion." It was indirectly in your statement.
Lately there have been a loud minority intentionally pushing an anti-Jesus agenda by attacking His divinity, despite John 1:1 and so many others, so I am exposing that as a false teaching. I don't think God is behind any movement attempting to discredit Jesus, but I know who else might be. God bless.
The Lord Jesus as a babe and his entire conversation from Bethlehem to Calvary he denied himself of his glory and found himself in the likeness of sinful man. No one knew him. He was outwardly tempted by Satan but chose to believe his Father in Heaven and deny the world of it's offers and carry His flesh to the cross in all purity. It was at the cross where he took the sins of this earth from Adam until time is no more upon his Holy flesh and it became sin unto Him. He had to die in the flesh because of the law, God's law. His spirit still knew no sin but it knew what it is like for sinful man to have the Father look away. Yet Jesus was also the mercy seat over the law which His own blood and water sprinkled clean thereby opening the way for sinful man in the flesh to come unto Him by Faith and repentance of sin.
Carleton
And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.
And he came and took the book out of the right hand of him that sat upon the throne.
And when he had taken the book, the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell down before the Lamb, having every one of them harps, and golden vials full of odours, which are the prayers of saints.
And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast """REDEEMED""" us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;
As we see here in Revelation 5:2-3. ( They sought out a worthy "MAN" to open the sealed book ) :And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof?
And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon.
You had to be born of a woman, you see a picture of kinsman redeemer in the book of Ruth with Boaz.
I hope that helps.
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That is a great question and important topic that you are inquiring about, "He chose to have His Son born of a human woman who by her fleshly nature is sinfull ,do you think there might have been a reason for this choice ?" And you also mentioned the seed of the woman which ties to this,
If I'm understanding the question as presented I think the study we are looking for is a study in
( KINSMAN REDEEMER).
Jesus was born of a woman to become our kinsman redeemer.
Galatians 4:4-5. But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.
Hebrews 2:9-11.
But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.
For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings.
For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,
Roman 8:3.
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son " IN THE ''''LIKENESS"'' of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
Revelation 5:2-5.
And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof?
And no man in heaven, nor in earth, neither under the earth, was able to open the book, neither to look thereon.
And I wept much, because no man was found worthy to open and to read the book, neither to look thereon.
And one of the elders saith unto me, Weep not: behold, the Lion of the tribe of Juda, the Root of David, hath prevailed to open the book, and to loose the seven seals thereof.
Romans 8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
I said that Jesus was in the same flesh as we because if He was not He would not have been affected in the same way we are. He had to be tempted the same as we are, if not He would have not fulfilled the prophets and the law. He was as much flesh as me or you but he lived on this earth sinless and a perfect life fulfilling his Father's will for us. That is what's so amazing, He left the glory He had in heaven to do that for us.
I hope that makes sense, Ron
It's like if you and I had to go through an obstacle course and I was able to go to the finish line without going through the course, how could I say I finished perfectly. Satan would be in front of God calling foul it doesn't count.
James 1:13 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man:
Jesus in the flesh was tempted his entire fleshly life on earth even 40 days and 40 nights from Satan.
I said Jesus willfully died for us, if His body had not died and placed in the tomb and God resurrected Him on the third day we have no hope.
I do not remember saying anything about soul/spirit or an afterlife that was not in this discussion.
God bless you, Ron
"And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God" Luke 1:35
"And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us" John 1:14
"I am the bread of life.. This is the bread which cometh down from heaven, that a man may eat thereof, and not die.."
I am the bread which came down from Heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live forever: and the bread that I give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world" John 6:48-51
"He can not deny himself" 2 Timothy 2:13
Carleton
"If Jesus did not have the sinful flesh that came from the first Adam and Jesus was incapable of sin what did He fulfill?"
I don't believe the above assumption is true. The Bible clearly says Jesus was without sin (perfect), so why even flirt with the idea that He wasn't? Where does that idea even come from?
Jesus didn't come to die for His own sins, but for yours, for mine, for all human beings past, present and future. Why assume it has anything to do with Jesus' doing something wrong? It wasn't about Him atoning for His sin, but yours! That's what makes it extra special and loving- He loved you that much to give you that gift that frankly He had no business doing.
The other assumptions I noticed was this, which I also don't believe is true:
"God cannot be tempted, Jesus was, God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us."
First, what do you mean by God cannot be tempted- do you mean God won't give into temptation or is impossible for a tempter like satan to tempt Him? Human beings are tempted by satan as a normal part of being human- so of course Jesus was tempted. It's possible you got this idea from: James 1:13, but it says God cannot be tempted with evil. It doesn't say that if God becomes a man that satan can't attempt to tempt him. This is likely at the core of this misunderstanding. Of course the Bible says clearly that Jesus is God in John 1:1 and many other verses.
Second, you wrote: "God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us"
I agree with the first part that God can't die. But then you wrote that Jesus died for us. Yes, as a human being, not as God. His spirit didn't die. So, this sounds like it's conflating 2 different things and assuming that Jesus doesn't have a soul or spirit or that there's no afterlife? Since all human beings have a soul/spirit and an afterlife, and since God the Father is a spirit, of course God the Son has this too which didn't die. God bless.
Romans.8:3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
We seeing Jesus the same as we having the same feelings and the same temptations as we do, but He did not sin. This shows us He is worthy to follow and be our high priest and King.
Hebrews 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Sinful flesh does not cause the blemishes it is the sin that one does. Jesus' sinless perfect life was the perfect sacrifice. God cannot be tempted, Jesus was, God cannot die, Jesus willfully did for us. God sent Jesus and then the Holy Spirit in the name of Jesus for any that will believe and follow Him.
Love your posts very helpful, keep up Gods work, Ron
Jesus needed to live a normal human existence, identifying in every way with His people, with their sufferings, their joys, hopes, doubts, sicknesses, etc. And He could only do this if He came as a Babe, growing up as a young man & fulfilling the Will of God in life & death. ( Hebrews 2:16-18). And even though the people saw Him only as the son of Joseph & Mary ( Matthew 13:55,56), they should have known the Scriptures that spoke of His coming ( Isaiah 7:14; Daniel 9:24-26; Isaiah chaps 52 & 53; Zechariah 9:9, 12:10; & many others).
To your other questions: "what was Christ's victory over?" Ultimately, He was victorious over death & hell; by implication: over sin's penalty & over Satan's power to all who believed. 2 Timothy 1:10; 1 Corinthians 15:25,26 & Revelation 20:14.
And "how did He achieve this victory?" Only by the Cross. What seemed to the world & to Satan as the final death blow to Jesus to be rid of Him, in fact became the very means of salvation to all who would believe on Him. Jesus' resurrection was God's glorious proclamation of His acceptance that sin's price was now fully paid & that all who put their trust in Him would be cleansed by Jesus' Blood, justified, accepted & glorified ( Romans 8:30).
Hi Sacha, I believe your first question had to do with "the reason for God to have His Son born of a sinful human, when He could have brought Him into the World in another way". So I did answer your question, though probably not in the way you expected; I specifically wanted to show that the "sinful flesh" of Mary wasn't an issue because Mary didn't contribute to His Birth, which meant that Jesus was perfect in every way: without a sin nature & without sin. He was born in total purity just as the first Adam was created in purity, but Jesus did not sin as Adam did. And this opposes your understanding that Jesus was born with sinful flesh (you wrote this in another comment).
So depending on how you understood/accepted/rejected my comment, I could then elaborate further. So I'll continue. Your question: "why couldn't Jesus come to Earth in another way?" Ultimately, God has the answer to this though we can offer our thoughts:
Jesus was sent primarily to God's chosen people, Israel, for their blessing, benefit & salvation. God had planned this in eternity that through His chosen seed (Seth) & succeeding generations of Noah, Shem, Abraham, Jacob, Judah, David, etc., that the Messiah would come.
If God placed His Messiah on Earth from nothing (i.e. just zapped Him onto Israeli soil) how would Israel respond to His appearance. Knowing that in Eastern cultures a person's lineage is vitally important for many reasons, someone who came & said that He had no descendants but just came from Heaven, would have been totally unacceptable. As it was, most of the people rejected Jesus in His day, but not to have descendants one could hardly imagine how they would have viewed Him & would have cast Him away as a mad man.
If Mary contributed to the conception of the Babe, then you're right, the Babe would have inherited her sin nature. If this were so, then Jesus would have not qualified to be the Lamb of God as He would be imperfect. Is a human baby imperfect? Yes. The sin nature is there but since sin has not been committed at that stage, there is no condemnation against it - but that baby would never fulfil God's requirements to be a sacrifice for sin.
But Jesus, as a Babe, as a Man, could, because He had no sin nature in spite of many deliberate attempts by Satan to make that happen. Had Jesus succumbed, He would have failed as God's Sacrifice, we would still be in our sins & God would have no other Sacrifice option to give. Why? Because He gave the very best - HIMSELF. Such is the demonstration & proof of Divine Love: in the giving of oneself for the salvation of the helpless & hopeless, lost in sin.
How we can praise Jesus today & always that for our sakes He remained unstained by the sin nature & sin and was "obedient (to the Father right up) unto death, even the death of the cross". May the Lord enable you Sacha in every way as you meditate on His Word on this very important matter of belief.
Would the Love of God for sinners be seen in creating another human or animal (though perfect) to represent Him in sacrifice & prove His Love? It would be like saying, 'I don't want to risk my life to go out to save the drowning man; I would rather find another to do it for me'. Where is the true Love here?
Rather, for John 15:13 to reveal Jesus' Mind, we can only understand that Jesus was the One Who delighted to accomplish His Father's Will as a Man: John 6:38; Philippians 2:6-8.
So to the question: who is this Jesus & was He linked to Mary by blood thereby inheriting her sin nature? From the Scriptures just given, we see that Jesus is inextricably connected to God & came down from Heaven as God sent out His Word to be made human ( John 1:1,14). Can God (His Word made flesh) be found with a sin nature? To answer that, I referred you to 1 Corinthians 15:45-47. Here we saw that God's first creation (Adam) is of the Earth, earthy; the second Man is the Lord from Heaven" & He is referred to as the last Adam.
So God had determined two separate creations. The first one was created perfect but was deceived & sinned. The second One was created perfect, not from dust, but by the Spirit who took the Word & placed it in Mary to be brought into the World not as a man formed from & lying on the ground but as a Babe formed by the Spirit & issued through a woman.
Thank you Sacha - I welcome all responses, as whatever is shared, unless completely in opposition to God's Word, can be useful for our knowledge & spiritual growth in the things & ways of God. So I agree, God did choose to have His Son born through a human, even though all humans are imputed with a sinful nature. And yes, I believe there was a reason for doing so.
At the foundation of Jesus' arrival & His Sacrifice, lies the unfathomable Love of God for mankind: John 3:16 & Romans 5:8 attest to it. To His people, Israel, that Love extended to the institution of the Law & the sacrificial system, so that through its performance, God's Anger against their sin was appeased & His Love declared in providing them a way out: a blood sacrifice was needed (through a pure spotless animal) so that life was paid for life (a substitutionary payment: Mark 10:45; 1 Peter 3:18). But that was for a time until Jesus came to fulfil the Will of God His Father ( Hebrews 10:5-10).
Since the animal sacrifices were temporary because of their inability to fully address the sin issue, they had to be a continual sacrifice, they gave no relief to man's consciences & never fulfilled God's eternal Plan, so at "the due time" God sent His Son to fully meet those shortcomings. God could have sent a specially created Lamb to fulfil this work or as some believe, a specially created Human to lay down His Life for sinners. So why didn't God do this?
Ultimately, the reason for this is in the Mind of God, but no doubt His Love for all, His requirement for a Perfect Sacrifice that fulfilled all His Demands & that there would be no further need nor better option to accomplish that Will, are a few of my thoughts. John 15:13 says, "Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends." Was not Jesus intimating that the fullest expression of Love is seen in one's unreserved willingness to sacrifice his own life because of the love for another?
When finding the common denominator in those verses you gave, it seems that you are trying to alert me to the fact that Jesus had come in the flesh, in the "likeness of sinful flesh". To this (that He came in the flesh, i.e. as a human) is what I fully believe & have written much about. The point/question that Neil made was "did Jesus inherit the sin nature from Mary?" He wasn't questioning that Jesus was Human (the Son of Man) but whether the sin nature that is in all of us from Adam, was also the inescapable lot of the Man Jesus?
To this I replied (& which you saw before the comment was removed), was that I believed that Jesus was conceived entirely of the Holy Spirit without human contribution. That is, that Mary was the vehicle (the means) by which the Father would bring forth His Son into the World, in fulfilment of the prophecy that went before Him. Is this what you're questioning, Sacha? Then I would welcome your thoughts on Jesus' conception & how you would arrive at it. Just a clue: 1 Corinthians 15:45-47.
And of course, thoughts from others, whether Jesus' birth was without a sin nature, or with a sin nature (i.e. His Nature was already fallen by virtue of Mary but He did not sin like us, as He resisted every temptation from Satan & of the flesh)?
Can you elaborate a little on what you don't understand, I'm sure someone can help. Thank you