Bible Discussion Thread

These is no sin, Jesus has taken sin away from the world when He is finished His work and went to the Father after His crucifixion. We have no sin and are given a new commandment in John 13:34. To "love" is our only commandment; the ten commandments are obsolete and do not apply.

Kenneth... I don't understand why you believe that sin no longer exists in the world when from the time Adam & Eve allowed that first seed of sin to enter them, sin has been growing in this world. Per the prophesies throughout the bible sin is getting worse with every generation. Also, the Messiah became the sacrificial lamb for us when He completed His Father's will and died for our sins. In His death sin was not removed. Forgiveness was given. If He did not die we would still me sacrificing animals on alters but the sin of the world grew to such degrees that we could no longer sustain that practice, hence the Messiah. If sin is done away with then there is no need for Him to come back in the manner that He will return. Then there is the prophesy of the 144,000... can you explain that. There are too many prophesies that are manifested today that proves that sin still exists in the world. To believe that it does not is playing into satan's agenda

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I believe the original sin is revealed in Isaiah 14:13-15.

Have you read, [ Jhn 1:29 KJV] 29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. It is very simple; His work is finished and sin is gone.

There is no sin; however, there is evil: take the holocaust, for example.

I would say, correct Science is our proof that sin is gone!

Hi Kenneth, my understanding is that all sin is evil and all evil is sin. 1 John 5:17. If you don't believe this, what is your criteria for differentiating between them and do you have examples? Also evil and sin exist today. Today in nearly every major city in the world someone will be murdered according to death statistics. That is evil and sin. So, I also don't understand someone saying there's no sin today since there is proof of it and the Bible says there is. Also why specifically do you believe science proves sin is gone? Thank you for sharing your perspective.

Kenneth, just a nagging thought from me as a result of your comment: if Jesus' crucifixion has dealt with the sin issue, i.e. there is no more sin, or He has forgiven the sins of the world in toto, then why was the Gospel preached by the apostles & then by us (no need for it). And why is there still so much evidence of wickedness & sin in the world, & increasing at a horrifying pace. Maybe there is something in your thoughts that I'm not picking up. Looking for further enlightenment.

You could say the view is completely opposite that of 21st Century, "Christianity."

I would say that the gospel was preached by the apostles, in order to address Spiritual issues with the Word of God. Us; we here, preach the gospel because that is what has been taught.

The sin in the KJVB, is sin of the third day of the Creation, by water only. The KJVB offers the Revelation of Jesus Christ in the days of the Creation.

The apostle Paul has demonstrated for us; today, how God uses signs in the grammar to tell us about the days of the Creation for the,"generation," living in other dimensions; of which we cannot even know, lest ye sin in the KJVBible. Now; Today, the KJVBible can educate us about these things existing in other dimensions. And with Science we may see that the world is perfect; there is no sin. Science is proof of the perfection this Universe that by the word of God the heavens were of old, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:

Yes, it is your perspective. The Holy KJV Bible is about the days of the Creation, as given in Genesis 1. KJVText comes from the beginning, in Genesis 2:4 to the book of Psalms; the book of Psalms is for the second day and the book of Proverbs begins the third day, which continues throughout the NT. This logical format is demonstrated by the apostle Paul in 2Peter 3:3-8.

The reason why there appears to be sin in the KJVBible is because on the third day, Christ came by water only. It was not until the fourth day; Today, that He came by water and blood and sins are forgiven.

I would say the, "ten strings," in PsalmsKJV, are singing right now.

The, "ten strings," in PsalmsKJV brings up the concept of M-Theory in the Creation.

Your comments appear mystical & your interpretation of the Bible, allegorical. Was this something you learnt, or from personal belief through mental calculations & surmises? If the Bible says ( 2 Pet 3:8) "one day is with the Lord as thousand years, & a thousand years as one day", could not that mean, that in Eternity, time is not measured by Earth's time schedule? That is, one day on Earth could even be a thousand years or more, (or less), in eternity? And to place the sequence of biblical books as representative of days of creation, surely must stretch the intent of Scripture to the point of personal invention & speculation? If, as you say, there is no more sin in the world, even though the evidence is overwhelming, then what do you make of the other Scriptures (e.g. Acts 3:19) that urge a person to "repent & be converted that your sins may be blotted out". Is this Scripture too, and many more, also then mysteriously put aside, or even reinterpreted to fit into your belief?

Who dreamt that up about, "Earth's time schedule?" Where did that come from, I see no cause for it. However, the KJVInterpret seems to be pretty clear about this, the two days in 2Peter 3:8 must be the fifth day and sixth day.

Thank You Chris,

Kenneth

Tell me this, how can a day be both, one day as a thousand years and a thousand years as one day. It is talking about the two days yet to come, the fifth day and the sixth day. Did you get the comment on a, "thousand years?"

It is all about perspective. You are looking at scripture as though all happened within the Universe we live in Today. The KJVInterpret looks at scripture from the beginning, everlasting first days; the second day, and third day, and considers these to be the places of origin. I can think of very few places in the KJVBible in which scripture may originate from this Universe. There is, "he made the stars also," in Genesis 1:16, and there is, "Beloved," in 2Peter 3:7,8, with the two, "thousand years'" referencing the six, "thousand years,'" in Revelation 20:2-7 having two tellings for the fifth day and the beginning of the six day in verse seven.

Where did my understanding come from? I like to call the KJVBible, the Kenneth Jesus Victory Bible, my Holy Grail with

th "V" in th KJVB because of the great victory Christ Jesus led me to, in the King James Version. He did it through an amazing near-death experience, from a severe cerebral contusion; localized with my brainstem, in a motorcycle crash I had: Monday April 10th, 1972. This, combined with the miraculous recovery Jesus facilitated for me, from the ICU in the UT Hospital Knoxville, Tennessee 37920. I have been to where Jesus Christ is now, to that other place. Now that I have a good understanding of God's Word in the KJVBible; I am ready to tell my story.

I began this work in Proverbs 8:22 following Genesis 1:01, focusing on, "in the beginning of his way;" Monday morning, January 1st, 1990 and by Saturday, March 7, 2020; I had all that was needed for the hypothesis, but still needed to complete the work on the paper explaining it (in process).

I would disagree with your summation of the work. I think the perspective of the KJVInterpret is innovative, intelligent and learned. It is innovative in that using "grammar," as the media, offers a pathway having much to offer in terms of clarity, depth and correctness. It is intelligent in that intelligence must be used to imply the history of other dimensions with the grammatical features offered by Hebrew, Greek and English. And of course, it is learned meaning that one must be learn the linguistics in the letters of English, Greek and Hebrew. And, it is original, I have found nothing like it anywhere. So; go ahead, take it for a test drive and see if it does not meet up to your standards.

Thank you for your comments & your sad account of your accident in 1972. You say you had a near death experience & given vision of the heavenlies, just as apostle Paul had received ( 2 Cor 12:1-4). However, Paul saw & heard wondrous things that we understand were in line with what he also preached, & of course he saw things that weren't "lawful" for him to utter. In any case, God's Word to us or by vision or revelation to the prophets & apostles, were given in clear & meaningful terms (not always understood within their culture & times), & not veiled in double meanings. In your (re)interpretation of God's Word, I think of others who have done likewise (e.g. the Bahai's) who have given meanings to Scripture that are not consistent with the clear intent of it, but have interpreted them to suit their theology. Of course, you believe that you now have gained further light on biblical Truths & able to give their 'new' meaning from applying other external factors. Well, this is not the way to read the Bible; it needs to be read & understood in its natural & proper way, whether in the original languages or translations. If that were the case to reinterpret other writings, one could do so with anything published, & in so doing gain some personal excitement in some new find, but leaving other recipients floundering in wonderment & disbelief. I appreciate your time on this, as I was interested to learn your beliefs & from whence they came, but staying true to the original meaning of the Scriptures (or for that matter any writing) is to me far more reliable & certain, than anything another could add or reinterpret it to be.

Have you read, [ John 19:30 KJV] 30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.

I believe that, "sin," in the KJVB; is any incompliancy within this Universe.

One thing, the interpretation works, without need for a topical read and also a chronological read to satisfy all their stipulations. What is your interpretation, where did you get it?

Thank You

Kenneth, I'm unsure of the reason for you quoting Jn 19:30, so I won't comment on it. As for "sin": I don't know where any non-compliancy with the Universe comes from; my Bible tells me (in numerous portions) that sin is any act that is in violation of God's laws & Holy requirements, whether committed in mind, word or in action. I'm not aware of any realm outside of God's domain that is interested in my propensity to sin or to administer punishment to me for it.

And "Interpretation": if a message is given verbally or in writing, it should be understood in its natural, logical meaning. If the author or speaker wishes to veil his message with other meanings/imagery/innuendo/& such like, then as free as he is to do so, it leaves the reader/listener mystified as to what is being said. Therefore, the need for a further interpretation: (enter Kenneth), who would then enlighten his readers further to its meaning. But the question (& the primary thrust of my initial enquiry with you) is, on what basis can you reinterpret the message, for all reinterpretations require a source (hopefully, a reliable one), so that one can make clear & logical judgements/decisions on what is being said. I understand, to a small extent, on what you've said, but I see no connection or corollary to the clear intent of what is written in the Bible.

As well, I've not given any further comment on 2 Pet 3:8, as I believe that I've given the natural & logical understanding of that verse as it ties in with the preceding verses, esp, vv 3 & 4.

But Chris, we are not looking for the natural and logical understanding of 2Peter 3:8; we are looking for the wisdom of God, hidden in the mystery in which they spoke.

The dialogue is from the beginning, in 2Peter 3:3, and by verse 8; the KJVReader is on the fourth day, looking to the fifth day and sixth day with the six, "thousand years," in Revelation 20:2-7."

Kenneth, you have inundated us with your understanding of the Bible, especially with associations of days of creation with other parts of the Bible. Even though you present some strange teachings that have no bearing on the Truth of Scripture, I hear what you are saying. And to what extent do all these associations go to enlighten us or strengthen us in the knowledge of God, His Son & the greatness of our salvation? To me, it is still strange teaching that does not stay true to the message of the Bible.

Rather, your declaration that 'Jesus died on the Cross for the sins of mankind shows that sin is no more in existence', is the more concerning to me. At least on this score, you are referring to known facts of man's inherent wickedness & rebellion to God, & his need of a Saviour to deal with the sin question. However, according to your understanding, at the Cross, sin of man was dealt with, thereby removing sin altogether from the world, hence no further punishment for it. Am I correct? How did you arrive at this, considering that the evidence of man's wickedness is all around & growing. Then how do you account for this rampant wickedness when 'sin no longer exists'? Do you think that there could be some connection between the two? Or are our personal sins & crimes in society deserve another designation & of no further interest to the Godhead? I could go further, but some rhetorical questions only to you, if I may: how do you account for sin = aberrations of mind or in action that may come up each day in your life? Do they exist? Do you give it a name? How do you deal with it? Is there a consequence to them? Thank you.

These associations enlighten us about the works of God, from the beginning of the Creation; to clarify things and show us the greatness of our salvation.

Yes, you are correct. Evidence of evil is all around us; however, sin is gone. The KJVBible gives us the history of the days of the Creation, it is not about man. It is about other dimensions, using things which can be easily understood, to enlighten us about things we cannot understand.

Kenneth, so from your last answer, we can only assume that you don't connect the existence of sin in the world today with the sin for which Jesus died. In other words, the evil (sin) around us today, is not really the sin that Jesus died for at the Cross. So how do you classify the sin of today? Why is it different? Is there then no hope for mankind now, since God (or some other deity) has not mercifully come forward to offer us 'another' way for cleansing & forgiveness? Then the ultimate question: why do we then even bother about God since He has no further interest in us & indeed the many believers who have experienced new life in Christ (by the indwelling Holy Spirit) are now left as believing a lie, misguided, destitute & destined for hell?

How do you see your position in the world & before God, given the belief that sin no longer exists? Is there a life after death awaiting you, or do you adopt the atheistic position of 'to the dust we return & that's the end of it all? I'm sure you've given much thought to these questions as you would need to personally substantiate your 'new' understanding of the Scriptures, or else your mind would never rest.

These associations enlighten us about the works of God, from the beginning of the Creation; to clarify things and show us the greatness of our salvation.

Yes, you are correct. Evidence of evil is all around us; however, sin is gone. The KJVBible gives us the history of the days of the Creation, it is not about man. It is about other dimensions, using things which can be easily understood, to enlighten us about things we cannot understand.

Sin and evil abound today. Satan wants people to believe it doesn't exist since he loves deceiving people into sinning and disobeying God. Jesus paid the debt of sin for everyone but it's up to each person to accept that gift. Even thought the debt is paid doesn't mean people aren't still sinning. Today in every major city through the world there will be violence, rape, and murder. That is both evil and sin. To claim those unspeakable acts aren't sin is inconsistent with the Bible. Have a nice day.

As well, I've not given any further comment on 2 Pet 3:8, as I believe that I've given the natural & logical understanding of that verse as it ties in with the preceding verses, esp, vv 3 & 4.

The dialogue is from the beginning, in 2Peter 3:3, and by verse 8 the KJVReader is on the fourth day, looking to the fifth day and sixth day in Revelation 20:1-7.

This interpretation comes from Paul's demonstration of the "hidden," wisdom of God, 1Co 2:4 & 7 KJV.

I quoted John 19:30 to show how I know Christ's work is finished. The KJVB is about the history of the days of Creation, as introduced in Genesis 1. "Sin," in the KJVB, is anything not compliant with the laws of the creation of this Universe. Information about the hidden wisdom of God may be found with the ten times, "from the beginning," occurs in KJVText, after the book of Proverbs, 1Co 2:7.

The KJVInterpret comes straight out of the letters of the KJVText, unchangeable, verifiable and open, Today.

Melchisedec is from, "the beginning."

And you may want to check out 2Peter 3:3-8, with Isaiah 28:9-10 & Hebrews 5:10 bringing Melchisedec into the mix?!?

It is Revelation 2:12,13,14,15; John 8:44 & Isaiah 14:13,14,15 at the crux of our story.

And the KJVInterpret may show us the corruption of 21st Century "Christianity."

There is but one Interpretation in the KJVBible, which Paul shows us, written afore in the letters of the KJVText. The Interpretation is built upon the telling of the days of the Creation. There is no, "private interpretation;" this is the only interpretation there is! Amen.

The only way Jesus is able to tell us about the generations is through the ancient stories in the KJVInterpret, as presented by Paul. Scientific concepts such as, "M-Theory," and "Black Holes," they are willingly ignorant of.