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Lance, Reply to the question concerning the wife of Cain;
Cain found his wife because Adam and Eve were not the only two people living on earth at that time.
( Genesis 1:26 - 28) states that on the 6th day God created mankind, BOTH male and female, blessed them, and told them to be fruitful and multiply, RE-plenish the earth, subdue it, and have dominion over every living thing on it.
God also created Adam on the 6th day. Adam, however, was not told to subdue the earth and have dominion over it. Adam was put in a garden in Eden ( Genesis 2:7, 8) completely by himself ( Genesis 2:18, 1st Timothy 2:13). The instructions given to Adam were to dress the garden and to keep it ( Genesis 2:15). Adam was a farmer, and the animals brought to him in ( Genesis 2:19 - 20) were utilized for that particular purpose. The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind because God chose Adam to stand against the serpent in the garden, and God chose the lineage of Adam to bring forth the Savior of the world. (It is interesting to note that unlike Noah, Abraham, Moses, etc., who are all stated as being faithful or righteous, that is nowhere stated of Adam; but it may be implied, as God did choose him).
The Bible uses translated words such as "peoples," "nations," "heathen," and "gentiles" to define these people as "foreign" or, in other words, a different lineage than Adam. The reason Cain found a wife in the land of Nod, east of Eden ( Genesis 4:16) is because the other races of people created by God on the 6th day were living on the earth, reproducing, and having dominion over it. It is interesting to note that for over 6000 years of marriages between the races of the world, those same races are still very much distinguishable......and ALL are blessed through the perfect plan of God, ( Genesis 1:28 12:2, 3, 26:4)
As to why the earth was being RE-plenished by God, look at ( 2nd Peter 3:5 - 7, 13).
DJ, you've got me thinking over this, so pardon my further question: if all this existed as you suggest (i.e. Adam in Eden & the others in various parts of the world), then what happened at the Flood & subsequent to its devastating result? Was the Flood contained locally, or was it a global flood? If global (by all indications it was: Gen 6:17), then what of the future of those 'others'? Possibly, a second Ark? And if I'm here walking the Earth today, who are my ancestors, since I've not come out of Adam, Noah & his descendants? I'm getting more despondent & fearful as I consider this proposition & the possibility of its reality, & this would affect many reading these comments.
Another popular theory among Bible students concerning the flood of Noah's time is offered to explain the fact that not only did the different ethnic races of humans survive the flood, but that the "giants" ( Genesis 6:4) that were upon the earth before the flood, also survived the flood. Giants are the product of fallen Angels mating with humans. They survived because Scripture states that they were upon the earth "also after that" ( Genesis 6:4), hence, after the flood of Noah's time occurred. More proof lies in the fact that David fought the GIANT Goliath approximately 2500 years later. This theory explains that the flood of Noah's time was only localized to that particular area in which Noah and the rest of the extended families of Adam lived, and migrated into. The flood was sent unto this specific area that was originally inhabited by the offspring of the fallen angels (rendered "sons of God" in Genesis 6:2, 4), and their families. They initially populated this particular land because their instruction was to come expressly unto the daughters of Adam, to "take them wives of all which they chose" ( Genesis 6:2), so that they could "bare children to them" ( Genesis 6:4), thereby intermixing and corrupting the seed line of the Messiah to the point of no return. These "giants," and their offspring, eventually may have settled outside the flood area, and subsequently were not a part of that destruction, also look at Genesis 12:6, 13:7, 15:19 - 21.
I believe that either, both, or a combination of these, and other possible scenarios that can be backed by Scripture, are the reason why all races are on the earth today.
At least, we're referring to the same Book, so one hurdle is omitted, but we have to deal with the evidence from Scripture first.
Then further to your Page 2, in reference to the giants, their survival post-Flood & their progeny would be difficult to comment on, since the foundation is not agreed upon. So with just a quick response to that: Is the mention of giants in those days a direct reference to the sons of God mating with humans or were there giants prior to that occasion? ( Gen 6:4). Did not the offspring of the giant-human mating produce "mighty men of renown'? Even if the whole Earth was not flooded, but only in a specific locale, it remains that God destroyed every living substance from the Earth (Gen7:23). And, how far back can the lineage be traced for the Caananite, Perizzite, Hivite & the Hittite? To Noah or to a post-Adamic race? If to Noah: what's the proof? If to another race of people: which race?
So my point is not to discredit your beliefs but to show that insufficient evidence is given to formulate anything outside the parameters of the Word. We can't assume something because it justifies or gives meaning to something else that may be evident. Why? Because our hypotheses may well be completely out of kilter thereby producing an erroneous outcome. I realize I don't have the answers, but I know for sure, that I would rather declare ignorance than to surmise/assume/calculate on certain 'facts' that cannot be clearly supported in Scripture.
These are some very important subjects that you seem to be a bit unsure of. As I am sure you already are, we have to dig a little bit under the surface; that is where the hidden treasure is. If we do not understand what happened in the beginning, how will we understand what will happen in the end?
"And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man" ( Luke 17:26), also look at Isaiah 46:10, Amos 8:11, Matthew 24:37, 2 Timothy 2:15.
Since we have been discussing the first chapters of Genesis, I will leave you with this.
The sons of God are Angels, look at Job 1:6, 7. The fallen angels came down from heaven and mated SPECIFICALLY with the daughters of Adam, producing giants. The flood came not only to rid the earth of evil men, but to preserve the lineage from which Christ would come (due to the success of the fallen angels).
Satan was an angel. Eve was beguiled by Satan. The word "beguiled" means to be seduced (Strong's). What happened in the garden to Eve (and Adam) was the first attempt to blot out the seed line from which the Messiah would come, and was the same thing the fallen angels were guilty of during their second attempt. The punishment Eve (and the rest of womankind) would from that point forward endure had to do with BIRTH, look at Genesis 3:16; and the punishment Satan faced included a separation of his PROGENY from that of the woman ( Genesis 3:15).
D.J., I notice you are engaged with others & understand that you would prefer these comments be closed since no more can really be added, however, I would just offer a few thoughts hopefully without much repetition.
In reference to the 'Races'. If the Bible tells us that the sons of Noah were Shem, Ham & Japheth who survived him, then we have to assume that the races (the Gentiles from Ham & Japheth) were the ones to populate the other parts of the world. How some of those Gentiles then developed features that presumably were far removed from their forefather, the Bible does not explain. However, I realize that you have that explanation: that there was a dual creation that had taken place (& you cited Scriptures which I couldn't find relevant) that would account for these other races. Though again, how certain developed characteristics very different from the original 'mold' can only be speculation.
And then you state that at the time of saving of Noah & his family, that this other creation of humans had a representation as well in the Ark (including the giants who had to be there to account for giants mentioned later on), so that they might all be saved. So, focusing on this 'other Creation of humans': as you know, I find no reference to them in the Bible, though you clearly see in the Scriptures this event taking place. Would you know where God had placed these other people, maybe somewhere near Eden; did Satan come to them to tempt them as well; if so, what was the result of that temptation; if not, then do we have a pure race living amongst us; & finally, why were these important facts hidden from our knowledge, since their presence & activity in the World would have a direct bearing on Gentiles? So, even with a dual Creation, we still get questions that really can't be answered as there is simply no answer to them, only speculation. For this reason, as stated earlier, I rather rest on revealed Truth & leave the unknown/unanswered to God. My thanks again.
The information given concerning other "flesh," accounting for a male and female representative of each race to come aboard the Ark can be verified through Scripture. This can absolutely account for the other races of people on the earth after the flood of Noah's time, look at ( Genesis 6:17, 6:19, 7:15, 16, etc.).
The Strong's definition of "Gentile" is a "FOREIGN" nation from the nation of Israel. If there is no foreign nation to Israel because we are all from Adam, then what FOREIGN lands are the children of Noah proceeding into in Genesis 10:5? "By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations." Who are the "Gentiles"? How are the Gentiles a product of Adam if the Gentiles are FOREIGN to Adam? It can't be both ways.
The information concerning the "giants" being on the earth after the flood is also verified by Scripture in Genesis 6:4, "and also after that," also look at Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11. If the "Sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4, are not fallen angels, then who do "giants" come from? Humans' mating with humans does not produce a giant.
If God said that "ALL FLESH" ( Genesis 6:17) would be destroyed that breathed the breath of life, how did the giants survive? Answer- because He told us they survived in Genesis 6:4. The great whales and sea creatures that breathe air survived, but we are not told that. We are told what we need to know. God uses both literal and figurative language, and it is our job to figure it all out. What we do know is that the word of God is the Truth.
How do we still have other races after the flood? The answer is because He has told us that throughout all of Scripture. God said that these nations of the earth would be against the nation of Israel for Israel's correction ( Isaiah 10:5), and that these nations would also be blessed at the end ( Isaiah 19:25).
We have examined the Scriptures and come to different conclusions. This is the beauty of the Word of God. Let us all keep learning and growing in His word.
I will leave you with some final thoughts and questions concerning these particular topics.
The information concerning the two separate and distinct accounts of the creation of man and the separate instructions given in Genesis 1:26-29 from that given in Genesis 2:4-7 can clearly account for the creation of mankind in general and the creation of Adam in particular.
If we are all ancestors of the singular man Adam you say accounts for Genesis 1:26-29 AND Genesis 2:4-7, how have we such distinct and separate races upon the earth after 6000 years of interbreeding?
One race mating with the same race does not produce another race or all the races; neither does migration.
If we are all derived from one man, than we would only have one nation to speak of because we would all be of the same lineage! How then do we in the third dispensation of time (when we are all with God again) still find a distinction between the house of Israel and the other nations? In Revelations 21:24, we find the different Kings of the nations bringing their glory and honour inside the gates? (i.e. they live outside the gates; and we are all with God at this point in time.
We are ALL of the family of God, i.e. of one blood ( Acts 17:26, 1John 1:7); but all are NOT of the same lineage.
If God makes a distinction between the lineage of Adam and the nation of Israel from every other NATION upon the earth, shouldn't we!
You said there's 2 accounts of creation in Genesis, but there's only one. It would take a lot of convincing to claim there's more than one.
Also, I believe scripture is clear that Adam is the first man created and Eve is the first woman. I also believe its possible God created other people outside of Eden, such as the land of Nod where Cain found his wife. Genesis 4:16-17.
However this is all irrelevant if you believe in the worldwide flood and only Noah and 7 others were saved, because everyone else on earth was wiped out. Some believe they were 'diverse' representing all races at that time, but I don't believe that.
I believe the Tower of Babel where God changed people's languages resulted in other identity and appearance and culture changes. Genesis 11:1-9. Verse 9 says he then scattered them upon the Earth, which makes logical sense how today ethic groups are largely in certain places: Chinese in China, Indians in India, Spanish in Spain, etc.
How do we still have other races after the flood? The answer is because He has told us that throughout all of Scripture. God said that these nations of the earth would be against the nation of Israel for Israel's correction ( Isaiah 10:5), and that these nations would also be blessed at the end ( Isaiah 19:25).
On a side note; you commented concerning the Tower of Babel.
It is interesting to note that the dispersion of Shem, Ham, and Japheth, and their descendants is given in chapter 10, before the cause of their dispersion, which is recorded and explained in chapter 11.
This is an example of a figure of speech known as Hysterologia, (Hys-ter-o-log-i-a). This figure is used when something is put last, which ought, according to the usual order, come first. It is, in a sense, a transposition of connected events.
So then, the events of ( Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place after the events of ( Genesis 11:1-9), and the events of ( Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place because of the events of ( Genesis 11:1-9).
In other words, it was only after the "tower" ( Genesis 11:4) was built, and judgment was pronounced on the sons of Noah and others, that their language was then confounded, and the "GENERATIONS OF THE SONS OF NOAH" ( Genesis 10:1) were "scattered" ( Genesis 11:7, 8) from that general area into the different "isles" ( Genesis 10:5), "lands" ( Genesis 10:20), and "nations" ( Genesis 10:31), and "peoples" (Revelations 17:5) of the earth.
Scripture concerning other "flesh," accounting for a male and female representative of each race to come aboard the Ark can be verified through Scripture. This can absolutely account for the other races of people on the earth after the flood of Noah's time, look at ( Genesis 6:17, 6:19, 7:15, 16, etc.).
The Strong's definition of "Gentile" is a "FOREIGN" nation from the nation of Israel. If there is no foreign nation to Israel because we are all from Adam, then what FOREIGN lands are the children of Noah proceeding into in Genesis 10:5?
"By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations."
Who are the "Gentiles"? How are the Gentiles a product of Adam if the Gentiles are FOREIGN to Adam? It can't be both ways.
The information concerning the "giants" being on the earth after the flood is also verified by Scripture in Genesis 6:4, "and also after that," also look at Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11. If the "Sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4, are not fallen angels, then who do "giants" come from? Humans' mating with humans does not produce a giant. Neither does a change in one's geographical location, nor a confusion of language, will change the ethnicity of a particular race.
If God said that "ALL FLESH" ( Genesis 6:17) would be destroyed that breathed the breath of life, how did the giants survive? Answer- because He told us they survived in Genesis 6:4. The great whales and sea creatures that breathe air survived, but we are not told that. We are told what we need to know. God uses both literal and figurative language, and it is our job to figure it all out. What we do know is that the word of God is the Truth.
DJ I agree with your assessment of the sons of God. However please know that Gentiles can mean foreign nation, it merely means NATION. in Hebrew it is the word Goy and it means nation, no more and no less. In the Greek it comes from the work Ethnos, which is where the word Ethnic comes from, as in Ethnic group.
It can mean foreign, heathen and the same word is also used in reference to Israel . The King James translated Nation and gentile differently using the same exact word. they were not consistent in their usage of the translation of the same word. Imagine if they wrote that Abraham would be the father of many gentiles. No in that instance they used the word nation, but the same goy word was used.
Gentile does not mean non Jew even though the owners of the publishing houses want us to believe that is what it means.
Genesis 10:5 By these were the isles of the (Goy) Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their (Goy) nations. Gentiles and nations is the same exact word in the Hebrew and Greek.
Whether they are spoken of separately or combined, the "Jews" ( 2 Kings 16:6), the "Gentiles" ( Genesis 10:5), and the "church of God" ( 1 Corinthians 1:2) make up the three-fold subject matter of the word of God. Every part of the Bible is, in general, written concerning one of these three classes or divisions of persons. Therefore, what is written needs to be appropriately interpreted and applied to the class or division of people to which it was written for!
The misappropriation of these three classes of people; "Jews," "Gentiles," and the "church" of God, into Scripture where they do not belong is one of the foremost reasons why the word of God is misunderstood, look at Galatians 1:13, Ephesians 1:22, 5:23, Philippians 3:6, Colossians 1:24.
The Septuagint: The oldest translation of the Hebrew Bible in existence. It was made into popular Greek in Alexandria, Egypt the third or second century B.C.
The Targum of Onkelos; a Chaldee or Biblically Aramaic paraphrase of the Pentateuch, possibly written in the 1st or 2nd century A.D. in Babylonia.
Our English Concordances are merely dictionaries of every word of the Bible; translated from those particular languages, for our help.
We must always rightly divide the Word of God as to its subject matter. The question must always be asked when reading or studying the word of God; "Concerning whom is this particular Scripture written to or about?" There is no doubt that every word from Genesis to Revelations was written for all people to read, study, learn, understand, love, and have faith in; but to believe that every word in the Bible is written directly to all people in all time, or that it concerns only us in particular is an error that will lead to puzzlement and frustration when trying to comprehend the word of God, look at Romans 15:4, 1 Corinthians 10:11.
When it comes to the topic of "mankind," God has simplified for the student as to whom the general "subject matter" being spoken of throughout It concerns. Scripture informs us that there are three distinct classes or divisions of persons that the word of God addresses. These three classes collectively account for all of mankind. The divisions of persons are plainly given to us in the First Letter written by Paul to the Corinthians;
( 1 Corinthians 10:32)
Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God.
You are correct; the (Hebrew) translation of the word "Gentile" is the word "goy." However, from the definition given below from Strong's Concordance it clearly states the word "FOREIGN."
Hebrew definition;
(#1471) goy, go-ee- a foreign nation; hence, a gentile; also (fig.) a troop of animals, or a flight of locusts:- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
In addition, the Greek definition, which you correctly defined as "ethnos" leaves no room for error concerning the topic we are discussing.
Greek definition;
"Gentiles"(#1484) ethnos, eth-nos- a race (as of the same habit), i.e. a tribe; spec. a foreign (non-Jewish) one (usually by impl. pagan):- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
The name "Gentiles" was given by God to all people that were considered foreign to the Jews, to their lineage, and to the covenant relationship they enjoyed with the Lord. They are collectively defined as any foreign nation in relation to the nation of Israel. The first occurrence of the word "Gentiles" is found in ( Gen 10:5), and concerns the spreading forth of the offspring of the sons of Noah into "their lands;" referring to the lands of the "Gentiles."
Abraham is the father of many NATIONS, because GOD SAID that through him, ALL nations would be blessed! Not just (future) nation of Israel.
The English speaking publishing houses of North America have no control or influence over the ORIGINAL words of God that we have locked in place. The Hebrew and Chaldean words of the Old Testament and the Greek words of the New Testament have been preserved for thousands of years through ancient documents such as:
The Masoretec Text- The authoritative Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible.
The Samaritan Pentateuch, which is a translation of the Torah into Aramaic. It is written in the Samaritan alphabet, which is supposed to be an ancient form of Hebrew, and is believed to have come down from the Ten Tribes as early as the 4th century B.C.
The two separate accounts of creation can be found in Genesis 1:26-29 and Genesis 2:4-7.
Genesis 1:26-29 is the 6th day account of the creation of the different races that make up mankind, both male and female. The blessings and instructions given in Genesis 1:28 were given to those particular people.
Genesis 2:4-7 is the 6th day account of the creation of the specific man Adam. In Genesis 2:7, God gives us detail as to HOW both Adam and ALL of mankind are formed by Him (from the dust of the ground), but these verses concern only the particular man Adam.
Genesis 2:15-17 are the instructions given to the man Adam that are different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind. Adam was that particular man chosen by God to "till the ground" ( Genesis 2:5) and be a farmer in God's Garden; and try to resist Satan.
Genesis 2:21-23 is the formation of Eve FROM Adam. This is not creation of mankind, both "male and female" as found in Genesis 1:28, which concerns all of the races. This particular lineage is very special for all of mankind. It begins with the divine act of our heavenly Father taking a "rib" from Adam and creating Eve (one from one + the Lord God) and ends with the divine act of the Holy Spirit through Mary bringing about the promised birth ( Genesis 3:15) of the Lord and Savior of all the earth (one from one + the Holy Spirit) ( Isaiah 7:14).
I believe that you are partially correct concerning Adam. Adam is the first man and Eve is the first woman.. OF THE LINEAGE THAT WILL BRING FORTH THE MESSIAH; as 1 Corinthians 15:45 states. The other races were created on the 6th day along with Adam. We know this because God ENDED all of His creative work by the end of the 6th day ( Genesis 2:1, 2).
Why do you think there's 2 accounts? I haven't seen any evidence toward that. Those 2 verses are not evidence of that. I could only guess why you assume that, but it would only be a guess. Some people have previously interpreted writing structure incorrectly as separate accounts. Maybe this is what you're thinking?
That's based on a logical fallacy though and I can demonstrate. Let's say I see a car wreck and I run up to someone's house and say 'hey, there's been a car wreck and someone's hurt!' then I explain 'A truck came from the west and a car came from the east and they collided and someone broke their leg! Can you call for help?!'
And let's say that instead of calling for help the person says, 'why do you lie? You just said there was a car wreck, and now you claim there is a second car wreck in the same place? And you claim that someone was 'hurt' then someone 'broke their leg', so which is it you hypocrite?
The response is what some people do to the Bible. See, when people explain things they will generally start with a general thesis of what happened, then go into the details. This is common among speeches, and literary works. So, what happens is some people read in Genesis that the God created the heaven and the earth in verse 1, then use the logical fallacy as I just explained to claim that it's contradictory to what the rest of Genesis says. 'Did God create 2 earths? Was there 2 lights? How can it say he created x, then x doesn't happen until day x?' etc. The same logical fallacy over and over which fails to recognize the author simply using typical patterns of being specific vs general. It doesn't mean they are separate accounts.
By chance is that related to your thinking there are 2 separate creation accounts?
I believe there are two accounts of creation because of the information given to me by God in Genesis chapter 1 and Genesis chapter 2. In addition, I have provided Scripture to add weight to what is being proposed.
Are you sure you read the three pages of information sent to you concerning the various subjects conversed upon? You commented on only one portion. Any question or comment concerning the Scripture used to support my point of view?
I understand your general vs. specific remark concerning some hypothetical person being called a liar or hypocrite for not giving the complete story at the beginning. It is strange, as I would call someone neither a hypocrite nor a liar for generally informing me of a car accident.
If you do not agree with a statement concerning Scripture, show me my error through Scripture, rather than offer some random explanation of what I might be thinking, give no Scripture to back up your statement, and answer none of the questions presented to you.
To answer your questions;
God only created one earth and one heaven; but three separate and distinct heaven and earth AGES ( 2 Peter 3:5, 6, 13).
God only created one light, the sun; the moon is only a reflection of that light.
The book of Genesis is one cohesive book and has always been. So, unless you provide evidence of how there's 2 creation accounts I of course don't believe it. So far you cited 2 verses which weren't evidence and you said there's 2 chapters, which aren't evidence either. Is that your only evidence? A chapter break has nothing to do with a different account in Genesis nor any other book, and chapter and verse breaks were in the original scrolls, but added later to make it easier to read. I also guessed as to what possibly could have been an assumption in order to come to such a conclusion, but you didn't elaborate on why you assume what you do. God bless.
If the book of Genesis is one cohesive book, then why are the events of Genesis chapter 10 concerning the dispersion of the children of Noah given to us BEFORE the cause of their dispersion in Genesis chapter 11? (i.e. the scattering of the sons of Noah in chapter 10 took place BECAUSE of the events that happened at the Tower of Babel in chapter 11)
If Adam and Eve were the first two humans on earth, where did Cain find a wife?
If Adam and Eve are the ONLY two people from which all humans descend from, then why does God make a point to distinguish between a Jew and a Gentile? ( 1 Corinthians 10:32)
Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why does the HEBREW definition of the word "Gentile" refer to a FOREIGN nation from the nation of Israel?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 1:26 given in plural and defined as "mankind in general"?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 2:7 given in singular form, with the article, denoting the particular man Adam?
Some of these topics may require research; ( 2 Timothy 2:15).
Remember, the Bible was not written in English!
There are many resources available to help gain a deeper understanding of the Word of God: Concordances (Strong's), Interlinear Bibles (Green's), Commentaries, etc.
May God be with you in your quest to understand Scripture!
>If Adam and Eve were the first two humans on earth, where did Cain find a wife?
The Bible already answered that. The land of Nod. Either Adam and Eve's children and grand children populated in that area or God may have created more people after Adam and Eve. But to assume that just because something is unspoken that there's automatically contradictions or multiple accounts sounds like a false assumption to me. For instance the Bible is a limited book to only so many pages. There's no room to document every single detail of everyone's life. For instance there's ages of Jesus' life that we don't have any information on, and it never said once that he went to the bathroom or took a shower. Does that automatically mean he didn't or that since the Bible omits it that it's untrue? No, that would be a false assumption.
Jews were God's chosen people which is why its distiguished from others. I don't understand why you think that discredits the book of Genesis.
>Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why would you assume there's 6000 years of interbreeding? Have you ever read about the Tower of Babel? It says different languages were created and they were dispersed throughout the world. It seems likely to me that God also made different races/cultures and the Bible just doesn't mention it. So, Africans to Africa, Chinese to China, Indians to India, Russians to Russia, etc. To me that is most likely and just because it's not mentioned doesn't mean that the book of Genesis is flawed or has multiple accounts or contradicts itself. I think it's unlikely that 8 people on Noah's Ark covered all the variety of races and cultures and were separated geographically too. This happened post-flood. That's all I will answer at this time. God bless.
If we follow the center page columns of Genesis; it leads to other references, which on those pages lead to other references, forward and backward.
Scriptures about Lucifers fall; becoming Satan and meddling in Gods work begins to show what happened.
The 1/3 evil angels were cast out of heaven and hurled to earth with Lucifer. They are referred to as: other people's or inhabitants. Just search those words in Old Testament.
We don't know what they looked like (caveman vs human-like), they were pre-Adam. Being evil they We're probably evil going forward. If their bodies were destroyed, that would explain how demons are invisible but unmistakable in their fruits.
Somehow scripture says that God turned the earth upside down. I have no idea what would result if you flip the POLES. It turned to ice. God took everything away that made life livable on earth. Lucifer got them all killed? Looks like God left it like that for some time.
Back in the history pages I listed some of those scriptures; about the ice, etc. it's all KjV Bible. No interpretation. All was written in Hebrew, original text.
I had a lot of that info in my Bible with boxes drawn around them. I had not made the connections with the center references.
I'm praying now if God even wants us to put this "out there"?? We know there are demons on this planet already. Somewhere back there they lost their human-like bodies. Now they search to inhabit bodies by deceit and lies. Reprobate people invite them in for power to deceive humans.
Every one (demon) Jesus encountered, got cast out! No bargaining. Why study this? Untaught people, unbelieving people, are being driven crazy and whipped in to frenzy by riots. Like the one that in unison screamed for Jesus's crucifixion. Riots have become the norm since the Wash. DC, LA riots. Maybe God wants people to know what the work of demons are, so they will turn to Jesus for deliverance and salvation?
D.J., as always, I appreciate your comments & the time you've given to writing them. Yes, we all seem to have that extra time on our hands especially during these uncertain days.
I won't dispute the use of the word "flesh", as you've shown it in Hebrew, simply because I've never examined this properly. So, I will accept your explanation & application of that word. Yet, in Gen 6:18-20, it is specifically declared who & what were to be carried in the Ark (i.e. the eight humans & two of every animal, male & female). I wonder how you can understand that 'other humans', not of the Adamic lineage, would also be included amongst these, seeing that the whole reason for the 'escape in the Ark' was for the destruction of all remaining, unbelieving humans (vv 5-8)?
When I consider Scripture, as with such accounts that are not fully explained, I try to get to the very first mention of it (as here in Genesis) & progress through the Word to find more detail on the type of people (& animals) in question. Of course, the enquiry can sometimes be fruitless, simply because insufficient information is given, so my search ends as no other material is forthcoming.
Since you too are reading from the same Scripture & I'm sure you are not privy to other material on this subject, could it be that you're viewing the Genesis account the other way, i.e. backwards rather than forwards? To explain: if you have a belief that there must have been other races of (non-Adamic) people in existence since creation, then to support that belief, you would have to also assume that it was not just eight people & animals that went into the Ark, but other humans too, or else how could we have such a diverse range of humanity. I ask, can we make such assumptions when the Scripture gives no further light on them? Are those assumptions even believable then, since we can't see it in Scripture?
I did not answer one of your initial questions concerning Noah and the Ark and who we are descendants from if only 8 souls aboard the Ark survived ( 1 Peter 3:20). Disclaimer: This might get lengthy and bring in other topics that may not be a part of mainstream Christian conclusions, so to speak. I am giving you a lot of info. I have a lot of time on my hands lately. Thanks for reading.
There are various ideas about how all races are still on the earth if the flood of Noah's time destroyed all life. What does Scripture say?
I would start by turning to Genesis 6:19. "And of every living thing of all flesh, two of every sort shalt thou bring into the ark, to keep them alive with thee; they shall be male and female."
Our Father is letting us know that not only were there the eight Adamic souls ( 1Peter 3:20) instructed to enter the ark; Noah, his wife, his three sons, and their wives ( Genesis 6:18), but the command by God was to also bring two of "every living thing of ALL FLESH," which would include the other races of humans, on to the ark with him. They were to be brought "male and female" so that a seed line or remnant of these different races would remain after the flood.
The word "flesh" is derived from the Hebrew word "basar" (baw-sawr). It is used 27 times in the Book of Genesis. Only once is the word not identified with a human being in the Book of Genesis, look at Genesis 9:4. Of the 271 total times the word "flesh" is mentioned in the O.T., the Hebrew word "basar" (baw-sawr) is utilized for 257 of them, and is almost always representing human beings. When the word "flesh" does not represent man, it is easily identified as food; hence meat of some sort, whether living, raw, or cooked, as it does for the first time in ( Ex 12:8), also look at ( Ex 16:3, 8, 12, Lev 4:11, 18:7, etc.).
DJ, you present an interesting view of creation. You mentioned: "The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind". So assuming that there were 'other creations' of the human species on Earth at the same time (or later), what are these instructions that were given to them? If these are not recorded for us, could we then be just insignificant or worthless people in His Sight, only here for populating the Earth?
If we account for the existence of 'cave men' (& others) via this assumption, then I wonder why Adam & Eve were made in the image of God, with His Qualities & Traits, while these cave people's appearance & lifestyle, as we're led to believe, resembled more like animals?
Also, can we also assume that these 'others' did not sin as Adam & Eve did & so we might in fact have races of people right now who are sinless in the world? If this is so, shouldn't the Bible at least account for these other people, their temptations to sin, & God's dealing with them? It seems rather strange that God would only speak about Adam & Eve (because through them the Saviour would eventually come), but neglect about the state of the others. Then again, maybe God focused on Adam & his progeny for obvious reasons, but cared little for the rest of us. Why should we even need the Gospel to be proclaimed to us, since we may not need it because of our state, or for God's little care for us.
You raise some serious matters that can have frightening impact on our lives present & future.
In addressing your comment mentioning that God would not properly be representing all races; I will state that God chose Adam and his lineage to bring forth, umbilical cord to umbilical cord, the Savior of the world ( Genesis 3:15). That promise by our heavenly Father made this particular lineage the most important lineage to ever walk on the face of the planet. All other peoples and nations mentioned in the Bible are only due to their interaction, good or bad, ( Isaiah 10:5) with God's chosen people and the nation of Israel.
We are all children of God, blessed by Him, and given freewill to believe whatever we want!
On a side note, you state that Adam and Eve were made "in the image of God." The PLURAL words of God stating "in OUR image, after OUR likeness" ( Genesis 1:27) is the intention of God to make the mortal features of mankind to be a physical reflection of God and the angels. We are to be a representative figure of what we looked like in the 1st Dispensation of time. We are an illusion of that spiritual body, but delivered unto these flesh bodies in order to be tried and tested by God by the very freewill He grants unto us. How could God the Father and His only begotten Son know us beforehand if the first time we came into existence was in these flesh bodies in this 2nd Dispensation of time? The answer is simple; God "did foreknow" ( Rom 8:29) each and every one of us because we were all there in the 1st Dispensation of time. The only One made in the true image of God is His only begotten Son ( John 5:37, John 10:30John 14:7, John 14:9, Colossians 1:14, Colossians 1:15. The clear understanding that there are 3 heaven and earth ages can be found in 2 Peter 3:6, 2 Peter 3:7, 2 Peter 3:13.
Question If the beginning of the earth was the first seven days of creation found in Genesis 1:2 - 2:4, then when did the fall of Satan occur?
And to your question: "If the beginning of the earth was the first seven days of creation found in Genesis 1:2 - 2:4, then when did the fall of Satan occur?" This question is moot. There will always be theories when Satan's fall occurred. It could have been at some time after the creation of the angelic host ( Isa 14:12-15), maybe after God's creative Work had ended. It may have been according to the type given in Ezek 28:12-17, when Satan was already in Eden & from thence he fell into sin; or even in ( Rev 12:7-9) where Satan & his angels were cast out of Heaven to the Earth after Jesus ascended to the Father (though this option wouldn't work, as Satan was already active way before this time on Earth). So, I have to plead ignorance to your question, as the Scriptures don't give me a clear answer, though if compelled, I would lean towards the Isaiah description.
I will attempt to be less confusing. I apologize for possibly trying to give too much information.
There are two accounts of the creation of man. The first account is found in Genesis 1:26-29. The second account can be found in Genesis 2:4-7.
Genesis 1:26-29 is the 6th day account of the creation of the different races that make up mankind, both male and female. The blessings and instructions given in Genesis 1:28 were given to those particular people.
Genesis 2:4-7 is the 6th day account of the creation of the specific man Adam. In Genesis 2:7, God gives us detail as to HOW both Adam and ALL of mankind are formed by Him (from the dust of the ground), but these verses concern only the particular man Adam. Genesis 2:15-17 are the instructions given to the man Adam that are different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind. Adam was that particular man chosen by God to "till the ground" ( Genesis 2:5) and be a farmer in God's Garden; and try to resist Satan.
Genesis 2:21-23 is the formation of Eve FROM Adam. This is not creation of mankind, both "male and female" as found in Genesis 1:28, which concerns all of the races. This particular lineage is very special for all of mankind. It begins with the divine act of our heavenly Father taking a "rib" from Adam and creating Eve (one from one + the Lord God) and ends with the divine act of the Holy Spirit through Mary bringing about the promised birth ( Genesis 3:15) of the Lord and Savior of all the earth (one from one + the Holy Spirit) ( Isaiah 7:14).
D.J., thank you for your response. I will still go back to Gen 1:28 for clarification, as this verse seems to be where my misunderstanding lies. Since you stated that, "The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind", I could only assume that there were some other instructions given to the rest of us. However, you say that the instructions in Gen 1:28 also applies to us, hence I couldn't work out, & still can't, what these other 'completely different instructions' are, since Gen 1:28 applies to both Adam & Even & us. So this still remains confusing. Hence, my mind got carried away, that if there were other instructions to other people, then who were they, if not the progeny of our first parents? Then the rest of your remarks on your Page 1 I would agree with, if both Adam & us received the same instructions & not different ones.
And I noted your comments in your Page 2. However, my comments to which you referenced, only applied to my wonder as to those 'different instructions given to us', then your further comments (page 2) had no direct bearing to them, & therefore I would agree with them. Your reference to the "three heaven & earth ages", I would say refer to the sky, universe & earth, rather than to the Heaven of God's Abode. Is that what you meant?
Concerning the three heaven and earth AGES; reference will again be pointed toward the entire chapter of 2nd Peter chapter 3. This might give you a clearer understanding of these separate DISPENSATIONS OF TIME (not the formation of three separate heavens and earths). For reference I will again state that "the world that then was" ( 2 Peter 3:6) refers to the first dispensation of time. "The heavens and earth which are now" ( 2 Peter 3:7) refers to the second dispensation of time (the time we are presently living in from Adam until now). And "a new heavens and a new earth" ( 2 Peter 3:13) refer to the time period that all God fearing humans are waiting for; also look at Isaiah 65:17, Isaiah 66:12, Revelations 21:1.
My question concerning Satan brings into light the three dispensations of time; as Scripture would be most difficult to understand without comprehension of them.
The fall of Satan happened in the first earth and heaven age and was the reason for the end of that particular time period. Information regarding this can be found (as you stated) in Isaiah 14:12-20, Isaiah 45:18, 19, Jeremiah 4:22-29, and Ezekiel 28:12-19, as they are descriptive figurative statements revealing him to us. Not a page of God's word could be turned without the use of figurative language; which is employed to emphasize a truth and reveal a deeper understanding of the topic being discussed.
Therefore, "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth." Genesis 1:1. That was the first earth age.
Found in first half of Genesis 1:2 is the result of the end of the first dispensation of time (due to the rebellion of Satan); hence, the earth was (became) without form and void.
Found in the second half of Genesis 1:2 is the first act of the second dispensation of time; hence, the Spirit of God moving upon the waters.
I appreciate your feedback concerning the creation of Adam and Eve.
In reply to your first question, I believe that was answered in the original post. Scripture states that God created mankind on the 6th day, both male and female. God then B-L-E-S-S-E-D them, and said unto them, be fruitful, and multiply, and RE-plenish the earth, and subdue it. ( Genesis 1:26, Genesis1:27, Genesis 1:28). These are the instructions given to the rest of mankind. We are clearly neither insignificant nor are we worthless in His sight. We are all children of God with power given by Him to choose for ourselves who or what we want to believe. God makes the choice even easier: Be a part of His family of everlasting life or be a part of Satan's family of death.
Your phrase "or later" in regards to creation after the 6th day, I would point to Genesis 2:1, Genesis 2:2, and Genesis 2:3, which states that God FINISHED all of His creative work by the end of the 6th day; mankind being the last and greatest (and most confused) creative accomplishment.
I do not account for the existence of "cavemen." Scripture does not leave room for evolution. God states that He "created" ( Genesis 1:27) man. You and I were born, not created, as Adam, Eve, and the other Patriarchs and Matriarchs of the races (i.e. genealogy, Luke 3:23 - 39). Have we evolved from Adam?
Concerning a race or races of "sinless" people out there in the world I would point to Scripture found in Romans 3:23, Romans 5:12, 1 Corinthians 15:22.
The earth became a ruin, and the heavens ceased to give light, but neither were created by God in that manner because we know that; "as for God, His way is perfect" ( 2 Samuel 22:31, Psalms 18:30), also look at ( Deuteronomy 32:4, Jeremiah 10:12). Everything created by God is flawless and pure in how it was created, and there is nothing that is not subject to this fact. In other words, God would not create an earth void and formless and a black heaven to spend the next six days fixing what He messed up. God forbid!
D.J., so I understand that you see two distinct accounts of creation of mankind (one for the other races & the other Adam & Even from which comes the Divine line to Christ). Well, I have tried my best, but can only see one account of creation: the Gen 1 account shows what God did during the 'Days of Creation' & the Gen 2 account gives more detail of the creation of man, his placement, his meeting the other creation of animals & also his new companion in life. So I can't take this point further as our understanding is clearly divergent, though your explanation for the 'different instructions' given can now be seen. To restate, I see both creation accounts as pertaining to one creation of man & not multiple; the manner of writing & repetition in part, just doesn't convince me of anything but the one creation.
I can understand & agree with your remarks on the 'Ages' as referenced to 2 Pet 3:5-7. In reference to Satan & specifically to Gen 1:2, I understand it is commonly assumed that the Earth became "confusion & emptiness" as a result of Satan's fall to Earth & that is acceptable. But since it's not specifically mentioned as such, & Satan being found at Eden doesn't necessarily give proof to support that belief, we should allow for some other force, whether from astral bodies or deterioration over the eons, that may have caused this deterioration to this once perfect World. Though, I can see that when evil is joined to something good & perfect, the result is evil (i.e. the absence of complete purity).
Otherwise, your remarks are appreciated & on the whole concurred with. Thank you for your time in these important subjects.
Cain found his wife because Adam and Eve were not the only two people living on earth at that time.
( Genesis 1:26 - 28) states that on the 6th day God created mankind, BOTH male and female, blessed them, and told them to be fruitful and multiply, RE-plenish the earth, subdue it, and have dominion over every living thing on it.
God also created Adam on the 6th day. Adam, however, was not told to subdue the earth and have dominion over it. Adam was put in a garden in Eden ( Genesis 2:7, 8) completely by himself ( Genesis 2:18, 1st Timothy 2:13). The instructions given to Adam were to dress the garden and to keep it ( Genesis 2:15). Adam was a farmer, and the animals brought to him in ( Genesis 2:19 - 20) were utilized for that particular purpose. The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind because God chose Adam to stand against the serpent in the garden, and God chose the lineage of Adam to bring forth the Savior of the world. (It is interesting to note that unlike Noah, Abraham, Moses, etc., who are all stated as being faithful or righteous, that is nowhere stated of Adam; but it may be implied, as God did choose him).
The Bible uses translated words such as "peoples," "nations," "heathen," and "gentiles" to define these people as "foreign" or, in other words, a different lineage than Adam. The reason Cain found a wife in the land of Nod, east of Eden ( Genesis 4:16) is because the other races of people created by God on the 6th day were living on the earth, reproducing, and having dominion over it. It is interesting to note that for over 6000 years of marriages between the races of the world, those same races are still very much distinguishable......and ALL are blessed through the perfect plan of God, ( Genesis 1:28 12:2, 3, 26:4)
As to why the earth was being RE-plenished by God, look at ( 2nd Peter 3:5 - 7, 13).
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Another popular theory among Bible students concerning the flood of Noah's time is offered to explain the fact that not only did the different ethnic races of humans survive the flood, but that the "giants" ( Genesis 6:4) that were upon the earth before the flood, also survived the flood. Giants are the product of fallen Angels mating with humans. They survived because Scripture states that they were upon the earth "also after that" ( Genesis 6:4), hence, after the flood of Noah's time occurred. More proof lies in the fact that David fought the GIANT Goliath approximately 2500 years later. This theory explains that the flood of Noah's time was only localized to that particular area in which Noah and the rest of the extended families of Adam lived, and migrated into. The flood was sent unto this specific area that was originally inhabited by the offspring of the fallen angels (rendered "sons of God" in Genesis 6:2, 4), and their families. They initially populated this particular land because their instruction was to come expressly unto the daughters of Adam, to "take them wives of all which they chose" ( Genesis 6:2), so that they could "bare children to them" ( Genesis 6:4), thereby intermixing and corrupting the seed line of the Messiah to the point of no return. These "giants," and their offspring, eventually may have settled outside the flood area, and subsequently were not a part of that destruction, also look at Genesis 12:6, 13:7, 15:19 - 21.
I believe that either, both, or a combination of these, and other possible scenarios that can be backed by Scripture, are the reason why all races are on the earth today.
At least, we're referring to the same Book, so one hurdle is omitted, but we have to deal with the evidence from Scripture first.
Then further to your Page 2, in reference to the giants, their survival post-Flood & their progeny would be difficult to comment on, since the foundation is not agreed upon. So with just a quick response to that: Is the mention of giants in those days a direct reference to the sons of God mating with humans or were there giants prior to that occasion? ( Gen 6:4). Did not the offspring of the giant-human mating produce "mighty men of renown'? Even if the whole Earth was not flooded, but only in a specific locale, it remains that God destroyed every living substance from the Earth (Gen7:23). And, how far back can the lineage be traced for the Caananite, Perizzite, Hivite & the Hittite? To Noah or to a post-Adamic race? If to Noah: what's the proof? If to another race of people: which race?
So my point is not to discredit your beliefs but to show that insufficient evidence is given to formulate anything outside the parameters of the Word. We can't assume something because it justifies or gives meaning to something else that may be evident. Why? Because our hypotheses may well be completely out of kilter thereby producing an erroneous outcome. I realize I don't have the answers, but I know for sure, that I would rather declare ignorance than to surmise/assume/calculate on certain 'facts' that cannot be clearly supported in Scripture.
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These are some very important subjects that you seem to be a bit unsure of. As I am sure you already are, we have to dig a little bit under the surface; that is where the hidden treasure is. If we do not understand what happened in the beginning, how will we understand what will happen in the end?
"And as it was in the days of Noe, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man" ( Luke 17:26), also look at Isaiah 46:10, Amos 8:11, Matthew 24:37, 2 Timothy 2:15.
Since we have been discussing the first chapters of Genesis, I will leave you with this.
The sons of God are Angels, look at Job 1:6, 7. The fallen angels came down from heaven and mated SPECIFICALLY with the daughters of Adam, producing giants. The flood came not only to rid the earth of evil men, but to preserve the lineage from which Christ would come (due to the success of the fallen angels).
Satan was an angel. Eve was beguiled by Satan. The word "beguiled" means to be seduced (Strong's). What happened in the garden to Eve (and Adam) was the first attempt to blot out the seed line from which the Messiah would come, and was the same thing the fallen angels were guilty of during their second attempt. The punishment Eve (and the rest of womankind) would from that point forward endure had to do with BIRTH, look at Genesis 3:16; and the punishment Satan faced included a separation of his PROGENY from that of the woman ( Genesis 3:15).
In reference to the 'Races'. If the Bible tells us that the sons of Noah were Shem, Ham & Japheth who survived him, then we have to assume that the races (the Gentiles from Ham & Japheth) were the ones to populate the other parts of the world. How some of those Gentiles then developed features that presumably were far removed from their forefather, the Bible does not explain. However, I realize that you have that explanation: that there was a dual creation that had taken place (& you cited Scriptures which I couldn't find relevant) that would account for these other races. Though again, how certain developed characteristics very different from the original 'mold' can only be speculation.
And then you state that at the time of saving of Noah & his family, that this other creation of humans had a representation as well in the Ark (including the giants who had to be there to account for giants mentioned later on), so that they might all be saved. So, focusing on this 'other Creation of humans': as you know, I find no reference to them in the Bible, though you clearly see in the Scriptures this event taking place. Would you know where God had placed these other people, maybe somewhere near Eden; did Satan come to them to tempt them as well; if so, what was the result of that temptation; if not, then do we have a pure race living amongst us; & finally, why were these important facts hidden from our knowledge, since their presence & activity in the World would have a direct bearing on Gentiles? So, even with a dual Creation, we still get questions that really can't be answered as there is simply no answer to them, only speculation. For this reason, as stated earlier, I rather rest on revealed Truth & leave the unknown/unanswered to God. My thanks again.
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The information given concerning other "flesh," accounting for a male and female representative of each race to come aboard the Ark can be verified through Scripture. This can absolutely account for the other races of people on the earth after the flood of Noah's time, look at ( Genesis 6:17, 6:19, 7:15, 16, etc.).
The Strong's definition of "Gentile" is a "FOREIGN" nation from the nation of Israel. If there is no foreign nation to Israel because we are all from Adam, then what FOREIGN lands are the children of Noah proceeding into in Genesis 10:5? "By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations." Who are the "Gentiles"? How are the Gentiles a product of Adam if the Gentiles are FOREIGN to Adam? It can't be both ways.
The information concerning the "giants" being on the earth after the flood is also verified by Scripture in Genesis 6:4, "and also after that," also look at Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11. If the "Sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4, are not fallen angels, then who do "giants" come from? Humans' mating with humans does not produce a giant.
If God said that "ALL FLESH" ( Genesis 6:17) would be destroyed that breathed the breath of life, how did the giants survive? Answer- because He told us they survived in Genesis 6:4. The great whales and sea creatures that breathe air survived, but we are not told that. We are told what we need to know. God uses both literal and figurative language, and it is our job to figure it all out. What we do know is that the word of God is the Truth.
How do we still have other races after the flood? The answer is because He has told us that throughout all of Scripture. God said that these nations of the earth would be against the nation of Israel for Israel's correction ( Isaiah 10:5), and that these nations would also be blessed at the end ( Isaiah 19:25).
We have examined the Scriptures and come to different conclusions. This is the beauty of the Word of God. Let us all keep learning and growing in His word.
I will leave you with some final thoughts and questions concerning these particular topics.
The information concerning the two separate and distinct accounts of the creation of man and the separate instructions given in Genesis 1:26-29 from that given in Genesis 2:4-7 can clearly account for the creation of mankind in general and the creation of Adam in particular.
If we are all ancestors of the singular man Adam you say accounts for Genesis 1:26-29 AND Genesis 2:4-7, how have we such distinct and separate races upon the earth after 6000 years of interbreeding?
One race mating with the same race does not produce another race or all the races; neither does migration.
If we are all derived from one man, than we would only have one nation to speak of because we would all be of the same lineage! How then do we in the third dispensation of time (when we are all with God again) still find a distinction between the house of Israel and the other nations? In Revelations 21:24, we find the different Kings of the nations bringing their glory and honour inside the gates? (i.e. they live outside the gates; and we are all with God at this point in time.
We are ALL of the family of God, i.e. of one blood ( Acts 17:26, 1John 1:7); but all are NOT of the same lineage.
If God makes a distinction between the lineage of Adam and the nation of Israel from every other NATION upon the earth, shouldn't we!
You said there's 2 accounts of creation in Genesis, but there's only one. It would take a lot of convincing to claim there's more than one.
Also, I believe scripture is clear that Adam is the first man created and Eve is the first woman. I also believe its possible God created other people outside of Eden, such as the land of Nod where Cain found his wife. Genesis 4:16-17.
However this is all irrelevant if you believe in the worldwide flood and only Noah and 7 others were saved, because everyone else on earth was wiped out. Some believe they were 'diverse' representing all races at that time, but I don't believe that.
I believe the Tower of Babel where God changed people's languages resulted in other identity and appearance and culture changes. Genesis 11:1-9. Verse 9 says he then scattered them upon the Earth, which makes logical sense how today ethic groups are largely in certain places: Chinese in China, Indians in India, Spanish in Spain, etc.
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How do we still have other races after the flood? The answer is because He has told us that throughout all of Scripture. God said that these nations of the earth would be against the nation of Israel for Israel's correction ( Isaiah 10:5), and that these nations would also be blessed at the end ( Isaiah 19:25).
On a side note; you commented concerning the Tower of Babel.
It is interesting to note that the dispersion of Shem, Ham, and Japheth, and their descendants is given in chapter 10, before the cause of their dispersion, which is recorded and explained in chapter 11.
This is an example of a figure of speech known as Hysterologia, (Hys-ter-o-log-i-a). This figure is used when something is put last, which ought, according to the usual order, come first. It is, in a sense, a transposition of connected events.
So then, the events of ( Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place after the events of ( Genesis 11:1-9), and the events of ( Genesis 10:5, 20, 31, 32) took place because of the events of ( Genesis 11:1-9).
In other words, it was only after the "tower" ( Genesis 11:4) was built, and judgment was pronounced on the sons of Noah and others, that their language was then confounded, and the "GENERATIONS OF THE SONS OF NOAH" ( Genesis 10:1) were "scattered" ( Genesis 11:7, 8) from that general area into the different "isles" ( Genesis 10:5), "lands" ( Genesis 10:20), and "nations" ( Genesis 10:31), and "peoples" (Revelations 17:5) of the earth.
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Scripture concerning other "flesh," accounting for a male and female representative of each race to come aboard the Ark can be verified through Scripture. This can absolutely account for the other races of people on the earth after the flood of Noah's time, look at ( Genesis 6:17, 6:19, 7:15, 16, etc.).
The Strong's definition of "Gentile" is a "FOREIGN" nation from the nation of Israel. If there is no foreign nation to Israel because we are all from Adam, then what FOREIGN lands are the children of Noah proceeding into in Genesis 10:5?
"By these were the isles of the Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations."
Who are the "Gentiles"? How are the Gentiles a product of Adam if the Gentiles are FOREIGN to Adam? It can't be both ways.
The information concerning the "giants" being on the earth after the flood is also verified by Scripture in Genesis 6:4, "and also after that," also look at Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11. If the "Sons of God" mentioned in Genesis 6:2, 4, are not fallen angels, then who do "giants" come from? Humans' mating with humans does not produce a giant. Neither does a change in one's geographical location, nor a confusion of language, will change the ethnicity of a particular race.
If God said that "ALL FLESH" ( Genesis 6:17) would be destroyed that breathed the breath of life, how did the giants survive? Answer- because He told us they survived in Genesis 6:4. The great whales and sea creatures that breathe air survived, but we are not told that. We are told what we need to know. God uses both literal and figurative language, and it is our job to figure it all out. What we do know is that the word of God is the Truth.
It can mean foreign, heathen and the same word is also used in reference to Israel . The King James translated Nation and gentile differently using the same exact word. they were not consistent in their usage of the translation of the same word. Imagine if they wrote that Abraham would be the father of many gentiles. No in that instance they used the word nation, but the same goy word was used.
Gentile does not mean non Jew even though the owners of the publishing houses want us to believe that is what it means.
Genesis 10:5 By these were the isles of the (Goy) Gentiles divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their (Goy) nations. Gentiles and nations is the same exact word in the Hebrew and Greek.
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Whether they are spoken of separately or combined, the "Jews" ( 2 Kings 16:6), the "Gentiles" ( Genesis 10:5), and the "church of God" ( 1 Corinthians 1:2) make up the three-fold subject matter of the word of God. Every part of the Bible is, in general, written concerning one of these three classes or divisions of persons. Therefore, what is written needs to be appropriately interpreted and applied to the class or division of people to which it was written for!
The misappropriation of these three classes of people; "Jews," "Gentiles," and the "church" of God, into Scripture where they do not belong is one of the foremost reasons why the word of God is misunderstood, look at Galatians 1:13, Ephesians 1:22, 5:23, Philippians 3:6, Colossians 1:24.
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The Septuagint: The oldest translation of the Hebrew Bible in existence. It was made into popular Greek in Alexandria, Egypt the third or second century B.C.
The Targum of Onkelos; a Chaldee or Biblically Aramaic paraphrase of the Pentateuch, possibly written in the 1st or 2nd century A.D. in Babylonia.
Our English Concordances are merely dictionaries of every word of the Bible; translated from those particular languages, for our help.
We must always rightly divide the Word of God as to its subject matter. The question must always be asked when reading or studying the word of God; "Concerning whom is this particular Scripture written to or about?" There is no doubt that every word from Genesis to Revelations was written for all people to read, study, learn, understand, love, and have faith in; but to believe that every word in the Bible is written directly to all people in all time, or that it concerns only us in particular is an error that will lead to puzzlement and frustration when trying to comprehend the word of God, look at Romans 15:4, 1 Corinthians 10:11.
When it comes to the topic of "mankind," God has simplified for the student as to whom the general "subject matter" being spoken of throughout It concerns. Scripture informs us that there are three distinct classes or divisions of persons that the word of God addresses. These three classes collectively account for all of mankind. The divisions of persons are plainly given to us in the First Letter written by Paul to the Corinthians;
( 1 Corinthians 10:32)
Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God.
Thank you for your reply.
You are correct; the (Hebrew) translation of the word "Gentile" is the word "goy." However, from the definition given below from Strong's Concordance it clearly states the word "FOREIGN."
Hebrew definition;
(#1471) goy, go-ee- a foreign nation; hence, a gentile; also (fig.) a troop of animals, or a flight of locusts:- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
In addition, the Greek definition, which you correctly defined as "ethnos" leaves no room for error concerning the topic we are discussing.
Greek definition;
"Gentiles"(#1484) ethnos, eth-nos- a race (as of the same habit), i.e. a tribe; spec. a foreign (non-Jewish) one (usually by impl. pagan):- Gentile / heathen / nation / people.
The name "Gentiles" was given by God to all people that were considered foreign to the Jews, to their lineage, and to the covenant relationship they enjoyed with the Lord. They are collectively defined as any foreign nation in relation to the nation of Israel. The first occurrence of the word "Gentiles" is found in ( Gen 10:5), and concerns the spreading forth of the offspring of the sons of Noah into "their lands;" referring to the lands of the "Gentiles."
Abraham is the father of many NATIONS, because GOD SAID that through him, ALL nations would be blessed! Not just (future) nation of Israel.
The English speaking publishing houses of North America have no control or influence over the ORIGINAL words of God that we have locked in place. The Hebrew and Chaldean words of the Old Testament and the Greek words of the New Testament have been preserved for thousands of years through ancient documents such as:
The Masoretec Text- The authoritative Hebrew text of the Jewish Bible.
The Samaritan Pentateuch, which is a translation of the Torah into Aramaic. It is written in the Samaritan alphabet, which is supposed to be an ancient form of Hebrew, and is believed to have come down from the Ten Tribes as early as the 4th century B.C.
Thank you for your comments.
The two separate accounts of creation can be found in Genesis 1:26-29 and Genesis 2:4-7.
Genesis 1:26-29 is the 6th day account of the creation of the different races that make up mankind, both male and female. The blessings and instructions given in Genesis 1:28 were given to those particular people.
Genesis 2:4-7 is the 6th day account of the creation of the specific man Adam. In Genesis 2:7, God gives us detail as to HOW both Adam and ALL of mankind are formed by Him (from the dust of the ground), but these verses concern only the particular man Adam.
Genesis 2:15-17 are the instructions given to the man Adam that are different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind. Adam was that particular man chosen by God to "till the ground" ( Genesis 2:5) and be a farmer in God's Garden; and try to resist Satan.
Genesis 2:21-23 is the formation of Eve FROM Adam. This is not creation of mankind, both "male and female" as found in Genesis 1:28, which concerns all of the races. This particular lineage is very special for all of mankind. It begins with the divine act of our heavenly Father taking a "rib" from Adam and creating Eve (one from one + the Lord God) and ends with the divine act of the Holy Spirit through Mary bringing about the promised birth ( Genesis 3:15) of the Lord and Savior of all the earth (one from one + the Holy Spirit) ( Isaiah 7:14).
I believe that you are partially correct concerning Adam. Adam is the first man and Eve is the first woman.. OF THE LINEAGE THAT WILL BRING FORTH THE MESSIAH; as 1 Corinthians 15:45 states. The other races were created on the 6th day along with Adam. We know this because God ENDED all of His creative work by the end of the 6th day ( Genesis 2:1, 2).
That's based on a logical fallacy though and I can demonstrate. Let's say I see a car wreck and I run up to someone's house and say 'hey, there's been a car wreck and someone's hurt!' then I explain 'A truck came from the west and a car came from the east and they collided and someone broke their leg! Can you call for help?!'
And let's say that instead of calling for help the person says, 'why do you lie? You just said there was a car wreck, and now you claim there is a second car wreck in the same place? And you claim that someone was 'hurt' then someone 'broke their leg', so which is it you hypocrite?
The response is what some people do to the Bible. See, when people explain things they will generally start with a general thesis of what happened, then go into the details. This is common among speeches, and literary works. So, what happens is some people read in Genesis that the God created the heaven and the earth in verse 1, then use the logical fallacy as I just explained to claim that it's contradictory to what the rest of Genesis says. 'Did God create 2 earths? Was there 2 lights? How can it say he created x, then x doesn't happen until day x?' etc. The same logical fallacy over and over which fails to recognize the author simply using typical patterns of being specific vs general. It doesn't mean they are separate accounts.
By chance is that related to your thinking there are 2 separate creation accounts?
I believe there are two accounts of creation because of the information given to me by God in Genesis chapter 1 and Genesis chapter 2. In addition, I have provided Scripture to add weight to what is being proposed.
Are you sure you read the three pages of information sent to you concerning the various subjects conversed upon? You commented on only one portion. Any question or comment concerning the Scripture used to support my point of view?
I understand your general vs. specific remark concerning some hypothetical person being called a liar or hypocrite for not giving the complete story at the beginning. It is strange, as I would call someone neither a hypocrite nor a liar for generally informing me of a car accident.
If you do not agree with a statement concerning Scripture, show me my error through Scripture, rather than offer some random explanation of what I might be thinking, give no Scripture to back up your statement, and answer none of the questions presented to you.
To answer your questions;
God only created one earth and one heaven; but three separate and distinct heaven and earth AGES ( 2 Peter 3:5, 6, 13).
God only created one light, the sun; the moon is only a reflection of that light.
If the book of Genesis is one cohesive book, then why are the events of Genesis chapter 10 concerning the dispersion of the children of Noah given to us BEFORE the cause of their dispersion in Genesis chapter 11? (i.e. the scattering of the sons of Noah in chapter 10 took place BECAUSE of the events that happened at the Tower of Babel in chapter 11)
If Adam and Eve were the first two humans on earth, where did Cain find a wife?
If Adam and Eve are the ONLY two people from which all humans descend from, then why does God make a point to distinguish between a Jew and a Gentile? ( 1 Corinthians 10:32)
Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why does the HEBREW definition of the word "Gentile" refer to a FOREIGN nation from the nation of Israel?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 1:26 given in plural and defined as "mankind in general"?
Why is the word "man" in Genesis 2:7 given in singular form, with the article, denoting the particular man Adam?
Some of these topics may require research; ( 2 Timothy 2:15).
Remember, the Bible was not written in English!
There are many resources available to help gain a deeper understanding of the Word of God: Concordances (Strong's), Interlinear Bibles (Green's), Commentaries, etc.
May God be with you in your quest to understand Scripture!
The Bible already answered that. The land of Nod. Either Adam and Eve's children and grand children populated in that area or God may have created more people after Adam and Eve. But to assume that just because something is unspoken that there's automatically contradictions or multiple accounts sounds like a false assumption to me. For instance the Bible is a limited book to only so many pages. There's no room to document every single detail of everyone's life. For instance there's ages of Jesus' life that we don't have any information on, and it never said once that he went to the bathroom or took a shower. Does that automatically mean he didn't or that since the Bible omits it that it's untrue? No, that would be a false assumption.
Jews were God's chosen people which is why its distiguished from others. I don't understand why you think that discredits the book of Genesis.
>Why do we have different races on the planet after 6000 years of inter-breeding? A change in the location of a person does not make him a different race!
Why would you assume there's 6000 years of interbreeding? Have you ever read about the Tower of Babel? It says different languages were created and they were dispersed throughout the world. It seems likely to me that God also made different races/cultures and the Bible just doesn't mention it. So, Africans to Africa, Chinese to China, Indians to India, Russians to Russia, etc. To me that is most likely and just because it's not mentioned doesn't mean that the book of Genesis is flawed or has multiple accounts or contradicts itself. I think it's unlikely that 8 people on Noah's Ark covered all the variety of races and cultures and were separated geographically too. This happened post-flood. That's all I will answer at this time. God bless.
Scriptures about Lucifers fall; becoming Satan and meddling in Gods work begins to show what happened.
The 1/3 evil angels were cast out of heaven and hurled to earth with Lucifer. They are referred to as: other people's or inhabitants. Just search those words in Old Testament.
We don't know what they looked like (caveman vs human-like), they were pre-Adam. Being evil they We're probably evil going forward. If their bodies were destroyed, that would explain how demons are invisible but unmistakable in their fruits.
Somehow scripture says that God turned the earth upside down. I have no idea what would result if you flip the POLES. It turned to ice. God took everything away that made life livable on earth. Lucifer got them all killed? Looks like God left it like that for some time.
Back in the history pages I listed some of those scriptures; about the ice, etc. it's all KjV Bible. No interpretation. All was written in Hebrew, original text.
I had a lot of that info in my Bible with boxes drawn around them. I had not made the connections with the center references.
I'm praying now if God even wants us to put this "out there"?? We know there are demons on this planet already. Somewhere back there they lost their human-like bodies. Now they search to inhabit bodies by deceit and lies. Reprobate people invite them in for power to deceive humans.
Every one (demon) Jesus encountered, got cast out! No bargaining. Why study this? Untaught people, unbelieving people, are being driven crazy and whipped in to frenzy by riots. Like the one that in unison screamed for Jesus's crucifixion. Riots have become the norm since the Wash. DC, LA riots. Maybe God wants people to know what the work of demons are, so they will turn to Jesus for deliverance and salvation?
Look in the history pages (1-5).
D.J., as always, I appreciate your comments & the time you've given to writing them. Yes, we all seem to have that extra time on our hands especially during these uncertain days.
I won't dispute the use of the word "flesh", as you've shown it in Hebrew, simply because I've never examined this properly. So, I will accept your explanation & application of that word. Yet, in Gen 6:18-20, it is specifically declared who & what were to be carried in the Ark (i.e. the eight humans & two of every animal, male & female). I wonder how you can understand that 'other humans', not of the Adamic lineage, would also be included amongst these, seeing that the whole reason for the 'escape in the Ark' was for the destruction of all remaining, unbelieving humans (vv 5-8)?
When I consider Scripture, as with such accounts that are not fully explained, I try to get to the very first mention of it (as here in Genesis) & progress through the Word to find more detail on the type of people (& animals) in question. Of course, the enquiry can sometimes be fruitless, simply because insufficient information is given, so my search ends as no other material is forthcoming.
Since you too are reading from the same Scripture & I'm sure you are not privy to other material on this subject, could it be that you're viewing the Genesis account the other way, i.e. backwards rather than forwards? To explain: if you have a belief that there must have been other races of (non-Adamic) people in existence since creation, then to support that belief, you would have to also assume that it was not just eight people & animals that went into the Ark, but other humans too, or else how could we have such a diverse range of humanity. I ask, can we make such assumptions when the Scripture gives no further light on them? Are those assumptions even believable then, since we can't see it in Scripture?
Onto Page 2.
Page 1
I did not answer one of your initial questions concerning Noah and the Ark and who we are descendants from if only 8 souls aboard the Ark survived ( 1 Peter 3:20). Disclaimer: This might get lengthy and bring in other topics that may not be a part of mainstream Christian conclusions, so to speak. I am giving you a lot of info. I have a lot of time on my hands lately. Thanks for reading.
There are various ideas about how all races are still on the earth if the flood of Noah's time destroyed all life. What does Scripture say?
I would start by turning to Genesis 6:19. "And of every living thing of all flesh, two of every sort shalt thou bring into the ark, to keep them alive with thee; they shall be male and female."
Our Father is letting us know that not only were there the eight Adamic souls ( 1Peter 3:20) instructed to enter the ark; Noah, his wife, his three sons, and their wives ( Genesis 6:18), but the command by God was to also bring two of "every living thing of ALL FLESH," which would include the other races of humans, on to the ark with him. They were to be brought "male and female" so that a seed line or remnant of these different races would remain after the flood.
The word "flesh" is derived from the Hebrew word "basar" (baw-sawr). It is used 27 times in the Book of Genesis. Only once is the word not identified with a human being in the Book of Genesis, look at Genesis 9:4. Of the 271 total times the word "flesh" is mentioned in the O.T., the Hebrew word "basar" (baw-sawr) is utilized for 257 of them, and is almost always representing human beings. When the word "flesh" does not represent man, it is easily identified as food; hence meat of some sort, whether living, raw, or cooked, as it does for the first time in ( Ex 12:8), also look at ( Ex 16:3, 8, 12, Lev 4:11, 18:7, etc.).
If we account for the existence of 'cave men' (& others) via this assumption, then I wonder why Adam & Eve were made in the image of God, with His Qualities & Traits, while these cave people's appearance & lifestyle, as we're led to believe, resembled more like animals?
Also, can we also assume that these 'others' did not sin as Adam & Eve did & so we might in fact have races of people right now who are sinless in the world? If this is so, shouldn't the Bible at least account for these other people, their temptations to sin, & God's dealing with them? It seems rather strange that God would only speak about Adam & Eve (because through them the Saviour would eventually come), but neglect about the state of the others. Then again, maybe God focused on Adam & his progeny for obvious reasons, but cared little for the rest of us. Why should we even need the Gospel to be proclaimed to us, since we may not need it because of our state, or for God's little care for us.
You raise some serious matters that can have frightening impact on our lives present & future.
Page 2
In addressing your comment mentioning that God would not properly be representing all races; I will state that God chose Adam and his lineage to bring forth, umbilical cord to umbilical cord, the Savior of the world ( Genesis 3:15). That promise by our heavenly Father made this particular lineage the most important lineage to ever walk on the face of the planet. All other peoples and nations mentioned in the Bible are only due to their interaction, good or bad, ( Isaiah 10:5) with God's chosen people and the nation of Israel.
We are all children of God, blessed by Him, and given freewill to believe whatever we want!
On a side note, you state that Adam and Eve were made "in the image of God." The PLURAL words of God stating "in OUR image, after OUR likeness" ( Genesis 1:27) is the intention of God to make the mortal features of mankind to be a physical reflection of God and the angels. We are to be a representative figure of what we looked like in the 1st Dispensation of time. We are an illusion of that spiritual body, but delivered unto these flesh bodies in order to be tried and tested by God by the very freewill He grants unto us. How could God the Father and His only begotten Son know us beforehand if the first time we came into existence was in these flesh bodies in this 2nd Dispensation of time? The answer is simple; God "did foreknow" ( Rom 8:29) each and every one of us because we were all there in the 1st Dispensation of time. The only One made in the true image of God is His only begotten Son ( John 5:37, John 10:30 John 14:7, John 14:9, Colossians 1:14, Colossians 1:15. The clear understanding that there are 3 heaven and earth ages can be found in 2 Peter 3:6, 2 Peter 3:7, 2 Peter 3:13.
Question If the beginning of the earth was the first seven days of creation found in Genesis 1:2 - 2:4, then when did the fall of Satan occur?
And to your question: "If the beginning of the earth was the first seven days of creation found in Genesis 1:2 - 2:4, then when did the fall of Satan occur?" This question is moot. There will always be theories when Satan's fall occurred. It could have been at some time after the creation of the angelic host ( Isa 14:12-15), maybe after God's creative Work had ended. It may have been according to the type given in Ezek 28:12-17, when Satan was already in Eden & from thence he fell into sin; or even in ( Rev 12:7-9) where Satan & his angels were cast out of Heaven to the Earth after Jesus ascended to the Father (though this option wouldn't work, as Satan was already active way before this time on Earth). So, I have to plead ignorance to your question, as the Scriptures don't give me a clear answer, though if compelled, I would lean towards the Isaiah description.
(page 1)
I will attempt to be less confusing. I apologize for possibly trying to give too much information.
There are two accounts of the creation of man. The first account is found in Genesis 1:26-29. The second account can be found in Genesis 2:4-7.
Genesis 1:26-29 is the 6th day account of the creation of the different races that make up mankind, both male and female. The blessings and instructions given in Genesis 1:28 were given to those particular people.
Genesis 2:4-7 is the 6th day account of the creation of the specific man Adam. In Genesis 2:7, God gives us detail as to HOW both Adam and ALL of mankind are formed by Him (from the dust of the ground), but these verses concern only the particular man Adam. Genesis 2:15-17 are the instructions given to the man Adam that are different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind. Adam was that particular man chosen by God to "till the ground" ( Genesis 2:5) and be a farmer in God's Garden; and try to resist Satan.
Genesis 2:21-23 is the formation of Eve FROM Adam. This is not creation of mankind, both "male and female" as found in Genesis 1:28, which concerns all of the races. This particular lineage is very special for all of mankind. It begins with the divine act of our heavenly Father taking a "rib" from Adam and creating Eve (one from one + the Lord God) and ends with the divine act of the Holy Spirit through Mary bringing about the promised birth ( Genesis 3:15) of the Lord and Savior of all the earth (one from one + the Holy Spirit) ( Isaiah 7:14).
D.J., thank you for your response. I will still go back to Gen 1:28 for clarification, as this verse seems to be where my misunderstanding lies. Since you stated that, "The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind", I could only assume that there were some other instructions given to the rest of us. However, you say that the instructions in Gen 1:28 also applies to us, hence I couldn't work out, & still can't, what these other 'completely different instructions' are, since Gen 1:28 applies to both Adam & Even & us. So this still remains confusing. Hence, my mind got carried away, that if there were other instructions to other people, then who were they, if not the progeny of our first parents? Then the rest of your remarks on your Page 1 I would agree with, if both Adam & us received the same instructions & not different ones.
And I noted your comments in your Page 2. However, my comments to which you referenced, only applied to my wonder as to those 'different instructions given to us', then your further comments (page 2) had no direct bearing to them, & therefore I would agree with them. Your reference to the "three heaven & earth ages", I would say refer to the sky, universe & earth, rather than to the Heaven of God's Abode. Is that what you meant?
(onto Page 2.)
page 2
Concerning the three heaven and earth AGES; reference will again be pointed toward the entire chapter of 2nd Peter chapter 3. This might give you a clearer understanding of these separate DISPENSATIONS OF TIME (not the formation of three separate heavens and earths). For reference I will again state that "the world that then was" ( 2 Peter 3:6) refers to the first dispensation of time. "The heavens and earth which are now" ( 2 Peter 3:7) refers to the second dispensation of time (the time we are presently living in from Adam until now). And "a new heavens and a new earth" ( 2 Peter 3:13) refer to the time period that all God fearing humans are waiting for; also look at Isaiah 65:17, Isaiah 66:12, Revelations 21:1.
My question concerning Satan brings into light the three dispensations of time; as Scripture would be most difficult to understand without comprehension of them.
The fall of Satan happened in the first earth and heaven age and was the reason for the end of that particular time period. Information regarding this can be found (as you stated) in Isaiah 14:12-20, Isaiah 45:18, 19, Jeremiah 4:22-29, and Ezekiel 28:12-19, as they are descriptive figurative statements revealing him to us. Not a page of God's word could be turned without the use of figurative language; which is employed to emphasize a truth and reveal a deeper understanding of the topic being discussed.
Therefore, "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth." Genesis 1:1. That was the first earth age.
Found in first half of Genesis 1:2 is the result of the end of the first dispensation of time (due to the rebellion of Satan); hence, the earth was (became) without form and void.
Found in the second half of Genesis 1:2 is the first act of the second dispensation of time; hence, the Spirit of God moving upon the waters.
(page 1)
I appreciate your feedback concerning the creation of Adam and Eve.
In reply to your first question, I believe that was answered in the original post. Scripture states that God created mankind on the 6th day, both male and female. God then B-L-E-S-S-E-D them, and said unto them, be fruitful, and multiply, and RE-plenish the earth, and subdue it. ( Genesis 1:26, Genesis1:27, Genesis 1:28). These are the instructions given to the rest of mankind. We are clearly neither insignificant nor are we worthless in His sight. We are all children of God with power given by Him to choose for ourselves who or what we want to believe. God makes the choice even easier: Be a part of His family of everlasting life or be a part of Satan's family of death.
Your phrase "or later" in regards to creation after the 6th day, I would point to Genesis 2:1, Genesis 2:2, and Genesis 2:3, which states that God FINISHED all of His creative work by the end of the 6th day; mankind being the last and greatest (and most confused) creative accomplishment.
I do not account for the existence of "cavemen." Scripture does not leave room for evolution. God states that He "created" ( Genesis 1:27) man. You and I were born, not created, as Adam, Eve, and the other Patriarchs and Matriarchs of the races (i.e. genealogy, Luke 3:23 - 39). Have we evolved from Adam?
Concerning a race or races of "sinless" people out there in the world I would point to Scripture found in Romans 3:23, Romans 5:12, 1 Corinthians 15:22.
Page 3
The earth became a ruin, and the heavens ceased to give light, but neither were created by God in that manner because we know that; "as for God, His way is perfect" ( 2 Samuel 22:31, Psalms 18:30), also look at ( Deuteronomy 32:4, Jeremiah 10:12). Everything created by God is flawless and pure in how it was created, and there is nothing that is not subject to this fact. In other words, God would not create an earth void and formless and a black heaven to spend the next six days fixing what He messed up. God forbid!
Sorry, ended up being long anyway.
I can understand & agree with your remarks on the 'Ages' as referenced to 2 Pet 3:5-7. In reference to Satan & specifically to Gen 1:2, I understand it is commonly assumed that the Earth became "confusion & emptiness" as a result of Satan's fall to Earth & that is acceptable. But since it's not specifically mentioned as such, & Satan being found at Eden doesn't necessarily give proof to support that belief, we should allow for some other force, whether from astral bodies or deterioration over the eons, that may have caused this deterioration to this once perfect World. Though, I can see that when evil is joined to something good & perfect, the result is evil (i.e. the absence of complete purity).
Otherwise, your remarks are appreciated & on the whole concurred with. Thank you for your time in these important subjects.
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