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Cain found his wife because Adam and Eve were not the only two people living on earth at that time.
( Genesis 1:26 - 28) states that on the 6th day God created mankind, BOTH male and female, blessed them, and told them to be fruitful and multiply, RE-plenish the earth, subdue it, and have dominion over every living thing on it.
God also created Adam on the 6th day. Adam, however, was not told to subdue the earth and have dominion over it.
Adam was put in a garden in Eden ( Genesis 2:7, 8) completely by himself ( Genesis 2:18, 1st Timothy 2:13).
The instructions given to Adam were to dress the garden and to keep it ( Genesis 2:15). Adam was a farmer, and the animals brought to him in ( Genesis 2:19 - 20) were utilized for that particular purpose.
The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind in Genesis 1:28-29 because God specifically chose Adam to stand against the serpent in the garden, and God chose the lineage of Adam to bring forth the Savior of the world. (It is interesting to note that unlike Noah, Abraham, Moses, etc., who are all stated as being faithful or righteous, that is nowhere stated of Adam; but it may be implied, as God did choose him).
The Bible uses translated words such as "peoples," "nations," "heathen," and "gentiles" to define people as "foreign" or, in other words, a different lineage than Adam. The reason Cain found a wife in the land of Nod, east of Eden ( Genesis 4:16) is because the other races of people created by God on the 6th day were living on the earth, reproducing, and having dominion over it.
It is interesting to note that for over 6000 years of marriages between the races of the world, those same races are still very much distinguishable......and ALL are blessed through the perfect plan of God, ( Genesis 1:28 12:2-3, 26:4, etc.)
As to why the earth was being RE-plenished by God, look at ( 2nd Peter 3:5 - 7, 13).
D.J., if that were the case of Gen 1:26-28 referencing another creation of people simultaneously to Adam & Eve, then the question of the beginning of sin & its transmission comes up.
Romans 5:12, in my understanding, tells me that sin was first committed by Adam & Eve, resulting in both spiritual & physical death to them, & so this death sentence (in & from A & E) passed upon all men. Given your understanding of the creation of man (not mankind in Gen 1:26-28), how did this transmission of the sin nature (or, even original sin) pass upon all men? Or, maybe this 'other creation of mankind' were likewise tempted to sin, with resulting death, which would make Paul's understanding erroneous by believing that the inception & transmission of sin was only through Adam.
I realize that this matter has been raised earlier, but felt to just bring this out, as there needs to be a fuller justification of our understanding of the Word to those who read about this. No mischief intended - just scriptural proof for our positions for this very basic, important teaching.
Paul's understanding of sin and its transmission through Adam in Romans 5:12 is absolutely correct!
The beginning of sin and its transmission is in no way affected by the creation of all the races in Genesis 1:26-28, as well as the beginning of the race through Adam in Genesis 2:7; eventually becoming known as "Hebrews" (look at Genesis 40:15, Exodus 3:18, etc.)
Original sin was not transmitted through a particular bloodline, but rather through the Spirit and the Will of God.
Had Adam fulfilled his responsibility, then there would have been no need for the promise of Genesis 3:15, and we would all be living in the 3rd dispensation of time now, right here; heaven on earth. But, that did not happen, and 6000 years later we are still waiting for His second Coming.
If you want to believe that all races of humans came from Adam that is your choice. That does not affect the saving grace of Jesus Christ. I have given you Biblical reference (man, flesh, Sons of God, giants, the flood, dispensations of time) for the position I make, as well as definitions of Hebrew words for assistance and reference.
Your Biblical explanation (or lack of one) concerning HOW the other races came to be upon the earth reinforces your shaky position on such an important topic(s).
I will restate that GOD specifically refers to "nations" and "gentiles" and "heathen" and "people" as FOREIGN to the specific tribe and nation and people known as Israel. God making this distinction throughout ALL Scripture should be a big clue.
Gold does not lie in the streets and on the pathways; we have to dig a little to find it. So also is the understanding of the Word of God! ( 2Timothy 2:15)
The Bible was not written in English, it was originally written in Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek (N.T.). A Bible Concordance is a must for every Bible student (that doesn't know Biblical Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek).
D.J., thank you for your response. My apparent "lack of biblical explanation & shaky position" I believe is justified, simply because the Bible doesn't reveal any other human creation other than Adam & Eve, from whom ALL humans descended. I realize that you support your position by quoting Gen 1:26-28 to prove the creation of other humans, to which I regard as referencing the creation of Adam & Eve only.
Indeed, you mention "Original sin was not transmitted through a particular bloodline, but rather through the Spirit and the Will of God." Can you offer a Scripture to support this, since I'm intrigued & perplexed? And I don't mind if you can "dig up some gold" to prove it from the Word. I cannot even conceive of such an Act of God. So, if my understanding of your statement is correct (& to save time & space), then sin has been imputed to every newborn into the world by an act of God & not transmission through the flesh (to which I submit). So if I had to allow this thought to progress, then God deems that because of Adam's sin, He is compelled to allocate sin & thus implicate each one of us on that basis. Please correct me if I have misunderstood you as this is an important matter that affects every human & event subsequent to it.
So then it no longer becomes a matter that my sinning, even from the earliest age & as a result of the inherited sin nature from Adam, but rather 'by the Spirit & the Will of God'. And so to this other creation, aside from Adam & Eve, they too had not the sin nature from Adam & Eve (simply because they were separate creations), but had to suffer the burden & consequences of sin simply because of Adam's folly as it was God's Will for them to also be accounted as sinners. Am I understanding this correctly? Or, can you further enlighten me?
"Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
Do your best to learn Biblical Hebrew (and Chaldean) and Greek; other languages don't matter (concerning Scripture).
Acquire for yourself Biblical aids; such as Bible Concordances, Bible Dictionaries, Bible Commentaries, Etymological Dictionaries, Lexicons, Dead Sea Scrolls, etc., to assist in your Biblical journey.
Pray to your heavenly Father daily that what you pass on as Biblical truth is correct.
I believe the answer to that lies in a careful reading of the book of Ezekiel 31.
Does one build a city with just a husband and a wife as Cain did Genesis 3:17
Cain found his wife because Adam and Eve were not the only two people living on earth at that time.
( Genesis 1:26 - 28) states that on the 6th day God created mankind, BOTH male and female, blessed them, and told them to be fruitful and multiply, RE-plenish the earth, subdue it, and have dominion over every living thing on it.
God also created Adam on the 6th day. Adam, however, was not told to subdue the earth and have dominion over it.
Adam was put in a garden in Eden ( Genesis 2:7, 8) completely by himself ( Genesis 2:18, 1st Timothy 2:13).
The instructions given to Adam were to dress the garden and to keep it ( Genesis 2:15). Adam was a farmer, and the animals brought to him in ( Genesis 2:19 - 20) were utilized for that particular purpose.
The instructions given to Adam are completely different than the instructions given to the rest of mankind in Genesis 1:28-29 because God specifically chose Adam to stand against the serpent in the garden, and God chose the lineage of Adam to bring forth the Savior of the world. (It is interesting to note that unlike Noah, Abraham, Moses, etc., who are all stated as being faithful or righteous, that is nowhere stated of Adam; but it may be implied, as God did choose him).
The Bible uses translated words such as "peoples," "nations," "heathen," and "gentiles" to define people as "foreign" or, in other words, a different lineage than Adam. The reason Cain found a wife in the land of Nod, east of Eden ( Genesis 4:16) is because the other races of people created by God on the 6th day were living on the earth, reproducing, and having dominion over it.
It is interesting to note that for over 6000 years of marriages between the races of the world, those same races are still very much distinguishable......and ALL are blessed through the perfect plan of God, ( Genesis 1:28 12:2-3, 26:4, etc.)
As to why the earth was being RE-plenished by God, look at ( 2nd Peter 3:5 - 7, 13).
Romans 5:12, in my understanding, tells me that sin was first committed by Adam & Eve, resulting in both spiritual & physical death to them, & so this death sentence (in & from A & E) passed upon all men. Given your understanding of the creation of man (not mankind in Gen 1:26-28), how did this transmission of the sin nature (or, even original sin) pass upon all men? Or, maybe this 'other creation of mankind' were likewise tempted to sin, with resulting death, which would make Paul's understanding erroneous by believing that the inception & transmission of sin was only through Adam.
I realize that this matter has been raised earlier, but felt to just bring this out, as there needs to be a fuller justification of our understanding of the Word to those who read about this. No mischief intended - just scriptural proof for our positions for this very basic, important teaching.
Paul's understanding of sin and its transmission through Adam in Romans 5:12 is absolutely correct!
The beginning of sin and its transmission is in no way affected by the creation of all the races in Genesis 1:26-28, as well as the beginning of the race through Adam in Genesis 2:7; eventually becoming known as "Hebrews" (look at Genesis 40:15, Exodus 3:18, etc.)
Original sin was not transmitted through a particular bloodline, but rather through the Spirit and the Will of God.
Had Adam fulfilled his responsibility, then there would have been no need for the promise of Genesis 3:15, and we would all be living in the 3rd dispensation of time now, right here; heaven on earth. But, that did not happen, and 6000 years later we are still waiting for His second Coming.
If you want to believe that all races of humans came from Adam that is your choice. That does not affect the saving grace of Jesus Christ. I have given you Biblical reference (man, flesh, Sons of God, giants, the flood, dispensations of time) for the position I make, as well as definitions of Hebrew words for assistance and reference.
Your Biblical explanation (or lack of one) concerning HOW the other races came to be upon the earth reinforces your shaky position on such an important topic(s).
I will restate that GOD specifically refers to "nations" and "gentiles" and "heathen" and "people" as FOREIGN to the specific tribe and nation and people known as Israel. God making this distinction throughout ALL Scripture should be a big clue.
Gold does not lie in the streets and on the pathways; we have to dig a little to find it. So also is the understanding of the Word of God! ( 2Timothy 2:15)
The Bible was not written in English, it was originally written in Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek (N.T.). A Bible Concordance is a must for every Bible student (that doesn't know Biblical Hebrew, Chaldean, and Greek).
Indeed, you mention "Original sin was not transmitted through a particular bloodline, but rather through the Spirit and the Will of God." Can you offer a Scripture to support this, since I'm intrigued & perplexed? And I don't mind if you can "dig up some gold" to prove it from the Word. I cannot even conceive of such an Act of God. So, if my understanding of your statement is correct (& to save time & space), then sin has been imputed to every newborn into the world by an act of God & not transmission through the flesh (to which I submit). So if I had to allow this thought to progress, then God deems that because of Adam's sin, He is compelled to allocate sin & thus implicate each one of us on that basis. Please correct me if I have misunderstood you as this is an important matter that affects every human & event subsequent to it.
So then it no longer becomes a matter that my sinning, even from the earliest age & as a result of the inherited sin nature from Adam, but rather 'by the Spirit & the Will of God'. And so to this other creation, aside from Adam & Eve, they too had not the sin nature from Adam & Eve (simply because they were separate creations), but had to suffer the burden & consequences of sin simply because of Adam's folly as it was God's Will for them to also be accounted as sinners. Am I understanding this correctly? Or, can you further enlighten me?
Please do yourself a favor!
( 2 Timothy 2:15)
"Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."
Do your best to learn Biblical Hebrew (and Chaldean) and Greek; other languages don't matter (concerning Scripture).
Acquire for yourself Biblical aids; such as Bible Concordances, Bible Dictionaries, Bible Commentaries, Etymological Dictionaries, Lexicons, Dead Sea Scrolls, etc., to assist in your Biblical journey.
Pray to your heavenly Father daily that what you pass on as Biblical truth is correct.
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