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Verse 41- I am not sure what Charles meant when he stated that Jesus spoke in tongues? I do know that Jesus spoke in Aramaic when he stated talitha cumi which means in the English tongue "Damsel arise":
1. There is known tongues which is used here as in Mark 15:34 eloi, eloi,lama sabachthani which means my God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Which is in the Aramaic tongue.;
2. There is unknown tongues which is used by some charismatic churches that is not supported by God ( I Corinthians 14:4). This whole chapter 14 on tongues is summarized in verse 19 and 22;
3. Bible tongues and laying on hands from Matthew to Acts are sign gifts given to the Jews only and not to the gentiles which seek wisdom ( I Corinthians 1:22). There are sign gifts to the Jews only to convince the Jews that Jesus is there messiah, and non-sign gifts given to born again believers (Jew or Gentile) that we use today in the age of grace. People are always trying to press Jewish doctrine into gentile church age.
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1. There is known tongues which is used here as in Mark 15:34 eloi, eloi,lama sabachthani which means my God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Which is in the Aramaic tongue.;
2. There is unknown tongues which is used by some charismatic churches that is not supported by God ( I Corinthians 14:4). This whole chapter 14 on tongues is summarized in verse 19 and 22;
3. Bible tongues and laying on hands from Matthew to Acts are sign gifts given to the Jews only and not to the gentiles which seek wisdom ( I Corinthians 1:22). There are sign gifts to the Jews only to convince the Jews that Jesus is there messiah, and non-sign gifts given to born again believers (Jew or Gentile) that we use today in the age of grace. People are always trying to press Jewish doctrine into gentile church age.
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