Bible Discussion Thread

The text mentioned here Ro.3:10 is misquoting the Hebrew scriptures. In fact paul is removing words from the Hebrew scriptures and adding his own words.

Ro. 3:10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one: 11There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. 12They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one. 13Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:

Psa 14:1 To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David. The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.

2 The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God.

3 They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one.

there is no mention of a "righteous" person in the first 3 verses of Psa. 14. IF you were to read this in its CONTEXT you will see that this chapter is talking about "FOOLISH PEOPLE". Its NOT stating that there are no righteous people on earth, for I can give you close to 100 passages that show there are, but that there is no good in the FOOL that has said in his heart, "There is no GOD".

read it like this,

Psa 14:1 "The fool" hath said in his heart, There is no God. They "The fool" are corrupt, they "The fool" have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good."The fool"

2 The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men "The fool", to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God.

3 They "The fool" are all gone aside, they "The fool" are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one. "The fool"

IF there were no righteous men why did the writer write the words of verse 5?

Psa 14:5 There were they "the fool" in great fear: for God is in >>>the generation of the righteous.