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In Matthew 3:16. The Bible says that he went straightway out of the water. It can be implied that this was full immersion. But it does not plainly say he was completely immersed. It is of my opinion that he was immersed into a watery grave to symbolize what was to come. His death, burial, and resurrection. There are many opinions to how he was baptized, and how we are to baptize today. I hope this helps a little.
The Greek word "baptisma" seems to indicate a full immersion/submerging, yet we have to consider that in respect to Jesus' baptism, it was what we refer to as John's baptism. And we know, that this baptism was not our Christian/Believers' Baptism, as it was only an indication of a person's contrition over his sins & repentance. It couldn't mean any identification with Jesus' death & resurrection as that didn't occur yet, but it certainly looked forward to that special time when a full & true cleansing would take place.
That is why John said, "I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?" Jesus didn't need to repent as He was sinless, so John was saying that, if anything, in your presence, I need to be rather baptized of you. So, if we take into account the Jewish baptism (tvilah) which involved full immersion/cleansing from various impurities of the flesh, then it's likely that John's baptism was also a full immersion, but for demonstrating the need for cleansing of the impurities of the heart.
That is why John said, "I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?" Jesus didn't need to repent as He was sinless, so John was saying that, if anything, in your presence, I need to be rather baptized of you. So, if we take into account the Jewish baptism (tvilah) which involved full immersion/cleansing from various impurities of the flesh, then it's likely that John's baptism was also a full immersion, but for demonstrating the need for cleansing of the impurities of the heart.
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