Verse 16 says not to pray for a sin that leads to death, I heard 2 different pastors say that this is when a christian keeps habitually sins and so God takes him/her out of this world to save their soul, such as the husband and wife who knowingly held back money after they sold property. So if the punishment for this sin is going to heaven, why should anyone fear it? Also is this another way to show that you cannot lose salvation once you are saved? Now I talked with a 3rd pastor who disagrees with that, he says John was speaking to Gnostic's who were living immoral lives with excuse that all flesh was evil and it led to spiritual death because it was unrepentant and continual sin and no one gets to heaven living like that. So 2 different explanations.
This has always been an intriguing portion of Scripture, as the Apostle does not give a lot of information for us to formulate a proper understanding. So in that respect, your pastors are correct, by giving you their different perceptions.
So my thoughts are: did the Apostle have an OT Scripture in mind when he penned these words. I refer you to Deuteronomy 21:22, "And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree...". My sense of this 1 John portion, is that John's focus is on PRAYER, rather than the sin. He begins this subject from 5:14, giving us confidence that God will hear & answer our prayers if we don't ask amiss but according to His Will.
Then John goes on to give an example (v16) of a brother committing sin which does not lead to death. If the Deuteronomy passage is referred to, then we see a sin (crime) against both God's Laws & the Law of the Land. The Deuteronomy account shows a rebellious, gluttonous & drunkard son, who for his crime, was taken to the Elders & was subsequently put to death. And that 'sin' was worthy of the death sentence under God's Laws, & to John's readers, who were under Roman Law as well, were also subject to civil law.
So, what if a brother then offends in that civil law, which might also affect God's Law, is the offence committed worthy of the death penalty? If not, then prayer may be offered on his behalf for God's forgiveness & for the brother's release from civil prison. But if the brother has sinned which is deserving of the death penalty, then the full force of God's Law & civil law stands. One cannot assume that this was a premeditated crime (can a true Christian even embark on such sins?); it could have been accidental/unintentional, yet determined as intentional, thus bringing on the legal requirement. As also for blasphemy & partaking of the Lord's Supper unworthily as sins - it is futile to pray for all such situations.
So my thoughts are: did the Apostle have an OT Scripture in mind when he penned these words. I refer you to Deuteronomy 21:22, "And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree...". My sense of this 1 John portion, is that John's focus is on PRAYER, rather than the sin. He begins this subject from 5:14, giving us confidence that God will hear & answer our prayers if we don't ask amiss but according to His Will.
Then John goes on to give an example (v16) of a brother committing sin which does not lead to death. If the Deuteronomy passage is referred to, then we see a sin (crime) against both God's Laws & the Law of the Land. The Deuteronomy account shows a rebellious, gluttonous & drunkard son, who for his crime, was taken to the Elders & was subsequently put to death. And that 'sin' was worthy of the death sentence under God's Laws, & to John's readers, who were under Roman Law as well, were also subject to civil law.
So, what if a brother then offends in that civil law, which might also affect God's Law, is the offence committed worthy of the death penalty? If not, then prayer may be offered on his behalf for God's forgiveness & for the brother's release from civil prison. But if the brother has sinned which is deserving of the death penalty, then the full force of God's Law & civil law stands. One cannot assume that this was a premeditated crime (can a true Christian even embark on such sins?); it could have been accidental/unintentional, yet determined as intentional, thus bringing on the legal requirement. As also for blasphemy & partaking of the Lord's Supper unworthily as sins - it is futile to pray for all such situations.
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