Why does Genesis chapter 2 begin with GOD did then Switch the name to The LORD GOD? Later GOD is referred to as The Word. I'm aware John 1 refers to the WORD and GOD being the same. Why does Genesis 2 change names? Is GOD and Lord God refering different aspects or just interchangable names before Jesus became flesh?
In my understanding, the examples of 'God' in Genesis 2:2, is in the Hebrew, 'Elohim'. This word has a number of meanings & applications, as referring to the true God, or gods, or judges, rulers, etc. Here in Genesis & elsewhere where it's clearly in reference to the God of Heaven, then the word means that God is defined as Almighty, Everlasting & Unchangeable One.
When we look at verse 4, 'LORD God', the Hebrew is 'Yahweh', which defines Him as a Personal, self existent God, the Author of all things, gives expression & effect to His Plans & maintains a relationship with His creatures. So, in using the 'LORD God', or 'Yahweh Elohim', we learn of the fullest expression of Almighty God. Now why the writer has deemed it necessary to use the different Name of God in this context, I cannot tell as there seems to our understanding some inconsistency in their use throughout Scripture.
As far as John chapter 1 & the 'Word of God', here we see that this God ('Theos', a general word for God) has expressed Himself by His Word ('logos', a speech, a Divine utterance) & also by His Spirit (as in Matthew 3:16). So God has always existed & never changed throughout eternity. But at the appointed time ( Romans 5:6), God sent out His Word, giving His Word a body of flesh, for the purpose of bringing God's Message directly to His people (just as the prophets of old did), but this time to do what the Law couldn't do ( Romans 8:3). And that was the giving of the ultimate Gift to man: that God in the flesh (Jesus) would Himself lay down His Life for His people's (& our) redemption.
When we look at verse 4, 'LORD God', the Hebrew is 'Yahweh', which defines Him as a Personal, self existent God, the Author of all things, gives expression & effect to His Plans & maintains a relationship with His creatures. So, in using the 'LORD God', or 'Yahweh Elohim', we learn of the fullest expression of Almighty God. Now why the writer has deemed it necessary to use the different Name of God in this context, I cannot tell as there seems to our understanding some inconsistency in their use throughout Scripture.
As far as John chapter 1 & the 'Word of God', here we see that this God ('Theos', a general word for God) has expressed Himself by His Word ('logos', a speech, a Divine utterance) & also by His Spirit (as in Matthew 3:16). So God has always existed & never changed throughout eternity. But at the appointed time ( Romans 5:6), God sent out His Word, giving His Word a body of flesh, for the purpose of bringing God's Message directly to His people (just as the prophets of old did), but this time to do what the Law couldn't do ( Romans 8:3). And that was the giving of the ultimate Gift to man: that God in the flesh (Jesus) would Himself lay down His Life for His people's (& our) redemption.
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