The literal translation of John 20:22 for the term "He breathed on them," it says literally "He breathed in." That is it! "He breathed in and said to them."
What does that mean that He breathed in?
Some point out the fact that the word for breathe is found in two places in the Old Testament, one is in Genesis 2:7, where the Lord literally breathed into the face of Adam and he became a living soul.
And then in Ezekiel 37:9, where he tells Ezekiel to go out and prophecy, and the wind comes and blows on the dead bones and they become alive.
But the difference between this instance and the two places I just mentioned is that in the Septuagint, in Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9 it has what is called the preposition EIS with the accusative.
God breathed into Adam. The wind and breath of God breathed into the dead bones. There is no prepositional phrase here in John 20:22. It is just the word breathed in.
What is interesting is that it does not say that they received the Holy Spirit.
This text is where some get the "two experiences" where here they were saved, and in Acts Chapter 2, the baptism of the Holy Spirit is a "second experience" that every Christian needs.
The problem here is that Jesus gave them the command, receive the Holy Ghost. It doesn't say they received Him!
I guess my answer to your question would be that when Jesus said this, He breathed in, like to expand His chest, and He says unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:
I hope this was not a private conversation. If so, please accept my apology.
As I understand you stating that the true experience, receiving the Holy Ghost, had not happened yet as we see in Acts 2 with the Holy Ghost coming upon them in Jerusalem.
Although I must ask where you have heard "He breathed on them" literally says "He breathed in"? The translation from the Greek is quite accurate. As the Greek word "emphusao" means "to blow or breath upon or to blow at".
I myself believe that is when they did receive the Holy Ghost personally from the Lord. In Acts 2 it states "they were all filled with the Holy Ghost". Having that amazing experience. Not stating that is where they received it. I believe that is the first place that they felt or experienced the power of the Holy Ghost. In my understanding.
I hope my statement only brings us together. As only God knows exactly when the Holy Ghost entered them.
Genesis 2:7 from the Septuagint translated into English says, "and the God molded man from the dust of the land and (breathed into) his face the breath of life and man became into a living soul."
Ezekiel 37:9 from the Greek Septuagint says, "and He said to me "Prophesy son of man, prophesy over the Spirit and tell the Spirit "Thus says The Lord, come out of the four spirits and (breathe into) these dead let them live!"
The prepositional phrase EIS is used in both Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9.
There is a specific action taking place in both those verses. The preposition EIS is used with the accusative case in both Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9. What that means to me is that it points to the object of verbal action. When I see the prepositional phrase EIS with the accusative, I believe it should be translated by using terms such as into, unto, to, toward, etc. A specific action.
But in John 20:22, the prepositional phrase EIS is not used in that verse in the Textus Receptus. That is why I don't believe the English translation is correct when it says He breathed on them. There's nothing in the Greek text to indicate that action was taken. It should read He breathed in. I see it as Jesus taking a deep breath before saying receive ye the Holy Ghost.
But John 20:22 does not tell us that they received the Holy Ghost.
I do agree that the Holy Spirit fell on many in Acts Chapter 2. But I don't see any indication that anyone had received the Holy Spirit before Christ's ascension into heaven. That is what I was getting at. I believe that salvation takes place once God's Spirit (Holy Spirit) enters into a person, not before.
What I was referring to was that while Jesus was here on this earth, I don't believe anyone had received the Holy Spirit yet. In Acts Chapter 2, yes! This would have been after Christ ascended into heaven.
You are not causing any confusion at all. To me anyway. As we should share these things of the Scriptures to help broaden each other. I very much enjoy conversing with others in the Lord.
That is very interesting about the "eis" following the G1720 word. You are correct as I looked over the Septuagint and saw the differences from those other two verses, with G1720, to John 20:22.
Although Jesus had not ascended into Heaven yet, as you correctly stated, He had raised up from the dead and was in His glorified body at this point. In my thought, in that He just "breathed in" before He spake seems of no avail or reason to me to have stated that.
With the Thayers and Strongs definition of the word G1720 stating "to blow or breathe upon" and "to blow at or on". As I am in no way a scholar in the Greek language.
Also as that word, G1720, only being used twice in the entire Septuagint(Greek OT), in the two verses you stated, and only once in the entire Textus Receptus(Greek NT) in John 20:22.
My belief is that the Lord did breathe the Holy Ghost at His disciples at that point. Although as I stated before only God, and the Lord, knows for sure about this. Your belief is just as good as mine. That is very good that you picked up on that little difference.
As this topic really is not that important. Exactly when the Lords disciples received the Holy Ghost.
Thank you for all your information and time Jesse. Always a pleasure.
Hey Rev. John This may be incorrect, but was it the promise of the Comforter that the world could not receive, in John 14:16-17 sent from the Father in Jesus' name? Ron, If wrong that is a beautiful question I will Keep studying. Understand now why you are a Professor.
What does that mean that He breathed in?
Some point out the fact that the word for breathe is found in two places in the Old Testament, one is in Genesis 2:7, where the Lord literally breathed into the face of Adam and he became a living soul.
And then in Ezekiel 37:9, where he tells Ezekiel to go out and prophecy, and the wind comes and blows on the dead bones and they become alive.
But the difference between this instance and the two places I just mentioned is that in the Septuagint, in Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9 it has what is called the preposition EIS with the accusative.
God breathed into Adam. The wind and breath of God breathed into the dead bones. There is no prepositional phrase here in John 20:22. It is just the word breathed in.
What is interesting is that it does not say that they received the Holy Spirit.
This text is where some get the "two experiences" where here they were saved, and in Acts Chapter 2, the baptism of the Holy Spirit is a "second experience" that every Christian needs.
The problem here is that Jesus gave them the command, receive the Holy Ghost. It doesn't say they received Him!
I guess my answer to your question would be that when Jesus said this, He breathed in, like to expand His chest, and He says unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:
I hope this was not a private conversation. If so, please accept my apology.
As I understand you stating that the true experience, receiving the Holy Ghost, had not happened yet as we see in Acts 2 with the Holy Ghost coming upon them in Jerusalem.
Although I must ask where you have heard "He breathed on them" literally says "He breathed in"? The translation from the Greek is quite accurate. As the Greek word "emphusao" means "to blow or breath upon or to blow at".
I myself believe that is when they did receive the Holy Ghost personally from the Lord. In Acts 2 it states "they were all filled with the Holy Ghost". Having that amazing experience. Not stating that is where they received it. I believe that is the first place that they felt or experienced the power of the Holy Ghost. In my understanding.
I hope my statement only brings us together. As only God knows exactly when the Holy Ghost entered them.
God Bless.
Here is what brings me to my conclusion:
Genesis 2:7 from the Septuagint translated into English says, "and the God molded man from the dust of the land and (breathed into) his face the breath of life and man became into a living soul."
Ezekiel 37:9 from the Greek Septuagint says, "and He said to me "Prophesy son of man, prophesy over the Spirit and tell the Spirit "Thus says The Lord, come out of the four spirits and (breathe into) these dead let them live!"
The prepositional phrase EIS is used in both Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9.
There is a specific action taking place in both those verses. The preposition EIS is used with the accusative case in both Genesis 2:7 and Ezekiel 37:9. What that means to me is that it points to the object of verbal action. When I see the prepositional phrase EIS with the accusative, I believe it should be translated by using terms such as into, unto, to, toward, etc. A specific action.
But in John 20:22, the prepositional phrase EIS is not used in that verse in the Textus Receptus. That is why I don't believe the English translation is correct when it says He breathed on them. There's nothing in the Greek text to indicate that action was taken. It should read He breathed in. I see it as Jesus taking a deep breath before saying receive ye the Holy Ghost.
But John 20:22 does not tell us that they received the Holy Ghost.
I do agree that the Holy Spirit fell on many in Acts Chapter 2. But I don't see any indication that anyone had received the Holy Spirit before Christ's ascension into heaven. That is what I was getting at. I believe that salvation takes place once God's Spirit (Holy Spirit) enters into a person, not before.
What I was referring to was that while Jesus was here on this earth, I don't believe anyone had received the Holy Spirit yet. In Acts Chapter 2, yes! This would have been after Christ ascended into heaven.
I hope that I am not causing any confusion here.
Thank you for the response!
You are not causing any confusion at all. To me anyway. As we should share these things of the Scriptures to help broaden each other. I very much enjoy conversing with others in the Lord.
That is very interesting about the "eis" following the G1720 word. You are correct as I looked over the Septuagint and saw the differences from those other two verses, with G1720, to John 20:22.
Although Jesus had not ascended into Heaven yet, as you correctly stated, He had raised up from the dead and was in His glorified body at this point. In my thought, in that He just "breathed in" before He spake seems of no avail or reason to me to have stated that.
With the Thayers and Strongs definition of the word G1720 stating "to blow or breathe upon" and "to blow at or on". As I am in no way a scholar in the Greek language.
Also as that word, G1720, only being used twice in the entire Septuagint(Greek OT), in the two verses you stated, and only once in the entire Textus Receptus(Greek NT) in John 20:22.
My belief is that the Lord did breathe the Holy Ghost at His disciples at that point. Although as I stated before only God, and the Lord, knows for sure about this. Your belief is just as good as mine. That is very good that you picked up on that little difference.
As this topic really is not that important. Exactly when the Lords disciples received the Holy Ghost.
Thank you for all your information and time Jesse. Always a pleasure.
God Bless.
You can type that in this websites Search Box (as you enter the site. you'll see it
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