Bible Discussion Thread

My question is within the scripture of Psalms 14:1 "The fool hath said in his heart, [There is] no God. They are corrupt, they have done adominable works, [there is] none that doeth good", has inputted [sics] in two places. First within the first sentence which if omitted would give an entirely new meaning to this scripture. If in fact the scripture was originally written to read "the fool hath said in his heart, no God..." then the pronouncement being made is profoundly different from what it has been changed to read. It denotes that the fool is not denying the existence of God, but, that he is consciously and willingly saying no to God. This in my view changes the meaning and interpretation of this scripture. In the second case of the added [sic] it changes the meaning of the sentence from an absolute declaration of "none being good" (which to me encompasses all time) to a more present or current referencing of peoples. In any case, I would like to know what was the original way Psalms 14:1 was truly written. Thank you and have a blessed one!