Bible Discussion Thread

Obviously the word 'Virgin' doesn't mean what people think, but probably just means 'young woman'. If it was the case that it literally meant 'virgin' then the child Immanuel, referred to in Isaiah 7: 14, who was born at the time of the prophet Isaiah to encourage Ahaz would also have been born of a virgin. So Jesus would not be unique in having a virgin birth. Jesus's mother Mary would also not be unique in giving birth to a child while still a virgin.

Pamela.

I'm not sure If I'm understanding you but the child Emanuel wasn't born during the time of Isaiah If that's what you are saying, This is a reference to our Lord born of Mary.

Luke 1:34-35. Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

Here's the account in Isaiah.

And I want to place the emphasis on it being a sign with significance!!

Isaiah 7:10-14. Moreover the LORD spake again unto Ahaz, saying,

"ASK THEE A SIGN" OF THE LORD THY GOD; ASK IT EITHER IN THE DEPTH, OR IN THE HEIGHT ABOVE.

But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD.

And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?

( THEREFORE THE LORD HIMSELF SHALL GIVE YOU A SIGN );

""Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.""

Now if the Lord goes through great lengths to give a telling SIGN a YOUNG WOMAN HAVING A CHILD WOULDN'T MOVE NOONE.

The seed of the woman also suggests the Virgin birth.

God bless.

If you read all of Isaiah 7 you will see that it is about Ahaz the King of Judah. His Kingdom was under threat from two kings, Rezin the King of Syria and Pekah the King of Israel. Ahaz asked the Assyrian king Tiglath-Pileser for help. The prophet Isaiah told Ahaz that God would deliver Israel and that he should ask for a sign so that he could be confident that this would happen. God gave King Ahaz a sign for himself and for the whole nation of Judah:

'And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also? Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Butter and honey shall he eat, that he may know to refuse the evil, and choose the good. For before the child shall know to refuse the evil, and choose the good, the land that thou abhorrest shall be forsaken of both her kings. ( Isa. 7:13-16)

The child described in Isaiah 7:13-16 would be a sign to King Ahaz and to the nation of Judah. Before this child was old enough to know the difference between good and evil, both Rezin the King of Syria and Pekah the King of Israel would be gone. This child would the be proof that God was going to protect the people of Judah from an attack by the two kings, Rezin the King of Syria and Pekah the King of Israel. Whoever wrote the Gospel of Matthew was misusing the quote from Isaiah 7 when applying it to Jesus when it clearly refers to a child that was born during the time of King Ahaz and the prophet Isaiah.

Pamela.

I don't find where Ahaz asks for help or a sign as you mentioned.

But what is important, GOD TOLD HIM TO ASK AND HE REFUSED TO:

Isaiah 7:12-13. But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD.

Notice "NOW" the Lord is talking to the WHOLE HOUSE OF DAVID, ( Present and future ).

And he said, ""HEAR YE NOW, O HOUSE OF DAVID;""

Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?

TheDavidic lineor House of David (known in Hebrew as " Malkhut Bayt David - ("Kingdom of the House of David") refers to the lineage of King David through the texts in the Hebrew Bible, in the New Testament, ( AND THROUGH THE SUCCEEDING CENTURIES.) This Prophecy was/is given to the Davided Kingdom throughout all ages.

Let's look at the Matthew account.

The account considers a Virgin without having to mention the word virgin!

Matthew 1:18-23. Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph,

( BEFORE THEY CAME TOGETHER, SHE WAS FOUND WITH CHILD OF THE HOLY GHOST.)

Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.

But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for ( THAT WHICH IS CONCEIVED IN HER IS OF THE HOLY GHOST.)

And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.

( Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,

Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. )

Jesus can't be who he is without the virgin birth!!

Hi Pamela,

Virgin means virgin. The Bible is already translated and accurate. If you don't believe Mary was a virgin like the Bible says, what is your reason?

There were zero other virgin births other than Jesus. Jesus = Immanuel. Jesus and God the father have many names throughout the Bible and this is one of them. It doesn't mean it would become Jesus's literal first name. The name means God with us since Jesus = God.

Isaiah 7:14 = prophesy

Matthew 1:23 = fulfillment

Luke 1:34-38 = Yes, Mary was in fact a virgin

Luke 2:7 = Jesus's birth

Isaiah 7:v.14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a VIRGIN shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.

The Word above was revealed to the prophet of the Lord, Isaiah, fulfilled LITERALLY later and it around past seven centuries.

I'm putting this message up in order to make it stand out and enlighthmphasize to all readers here that the Word is God, yes, the Word is God.

Is it written in the Bible? Then it will LITERALLY be fulfilled as in the message of the prophet Isaiah above as follows, because the Word is GOD:

Luke 1:v.26 to 38

26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,

27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.

28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

29 And when she saw him, she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.

30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.

31 And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus.

32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:

33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.

34 Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

36 And, behold, thy cousin Elisabeth, she hath also conceived a son in her old age: and this is the sixth month with her, who was called barren.

37 For with GOD nothing shall be impossible.

Hello, I can't determine what prompted you to reply to me as it sounds like you're agreeing, but posted the same verse I already posted.