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BIBLE DISCUSSION THREAD 164769

Bible Discussion Thread

 
  • Giannis on Hebrews 8:12 - 3 years ago
    Why do all. the English translations, including KJV's, translate the greek word "diatheke " () as "covenant" but not as "testament" which is the right translation? All modern greek translations without any exception use the word testament ( a person's will) and with that meaning all greek theologists and preachers from all sort of churches, greek orhodox, catholics, evagelical, pentecostal use it here in Greece. I also made a search in Wikipedia, Whereas in the greek version it uses the word testament, in the English one it uses the word covenant. It is a testament, not a covenant. An agreement can always change agterwards, a testament never changes after a person's death. In an agreement two persons try to find common terms to settle down, in a testament the person who writes his/her will puts down his own terms for the one who gets the heritage. So Gods testament never changes, there won't be any new one, and the terms of the heritage, that is the Heaven, come from God himself and have nothing to do with people.
  • Chris - In Reply on Hebrews 8:12 - 3 years ago
    Hello Giannis. I understand that the NT authors & Septuagint translators found that 'diatheke' was the best word that could be used when translating or referring from the Hebrew 'berith' (covenant). Diatheke was preferred over 'syntheke', since this word (syntheke) conveyed more of an agreement between equal partners, whereas 'diatheke' meant a covenant between a superior & a subordinate. And also to note, even as you mentioned, that a testament cannot be changed after the death of the testator, however, it can be changed while the testator is alive, for various reasons. Whereas a covenant cannot be changed at all while it is in force: when God makes a covenant with His people, He can punish them for breaking the covenant, but He never cancels the covenant promises He has made. However, Hebrews 8:6-13, speaks of Jesus being the "mediator of a better covenant" (as declared in Jeremiah 31:31-34), where the old was abrogated (i.e. it served its purpose & its time limit), ushering the new covenant through "the blood of the everlasting covenant" ( Hebrews 13:20).

    So, the way I see it, even though the Greek rendering is correct as "testament", it would allow, in biblical terms, for its use as 'Covenant' when translated & referred from the Hebrew word & meaning, as any another Greek word (even symfono?) would be unsuitable. As the New Testament came into force with the death of the testator ( Hebrews 9:16,17), it was still based on the first Covenant that God made with His people which is now made new through His Son.



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