Bible Discussion Thread

The KJV is claimed to be the inerrant word of God and superior to all other versions. I am curious as to why the KJV notes "corn" as a staple grain in biblical times when it did not exist in that part of the world until after Columbus discovered the Americas. Other versions of the bible use the term "grain" as opposed to "corn", which would be more accurate. Considering this; How can the KJV claim to be the inerrant version?

Hi Walter , I don't mean to be rude but if you can't get past the corn how are you going to digest the meat in this feast of righteousness we call the Bible ?

Hello Walter. We know that the KJV translation appeared in the 17th Century, when many words had a different meaning to what we know today, then we can appreciate the use of the word "corn". Though we presently understand 'corn' to refer to a highly bred grain developed from maize, in those days the English used the general word, 'corn' to represent barley, wheat, rye, oats, etc. In fact, it came from the old Nordic word 'korn', which meant 'grain'.

So when we see Jesus in Luke 6:1, going through the corn fields, plucking the ears of corn & rubbing them in His Hands, it certainly wasn't the corn of today, but likely a grain, such as barley, that could be rubbed together to separate the chaff from the grain. Or, the example of John 12:24, "Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground & die", we can understand it as a grain of wheat, giving us another use of the word 'corn'.