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Hello Mary, I believe Jesse is correct. Even though this KJV doesn't have quotation marks, it appears when someone is being quoted the first letter of the beginning of the quote is capitalized. The evidence for this is with other verses being that same way.
Could be a typo error, an English teacher is who I would ask to see if it has a significance to the structure of a sentence. Popper English can help us with interpretation of scripture just like they try to do with the Greek. The problem is back when this was written both languages were totally different. Does it even matter if we know why? Speak thou with us or speak thou with us?
I'm not sure if there is an answer to that. If I had to guess, and this is just a guess on my part, I would say that the reason the word speak is capitalized is because they were quoting what was said to Moses and the first word in that quote was the word speak. So maybe it could have been written this way: And they said unto Moses, "Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die."
Here a couple examples of Jesus being quoted:
Link
Link
God quoted with capital O for Of: Link
I'm not sure if there is an answer to that. If I had to guess, and this is just a guess on my part, I would say that the reason the word speak is capitalized is because they were quoting what was said to Moses and the first word in that quote was the word speak. So maybe it could have been written this way: And they said unto Moses, "Speak thou with us, and we will hear: but let not God speak with us, lest we die."
Again, this is just a guess!
God bless.
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