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Amalek apparently was the grandson of Esau. Hence; they were held in check as earlier prophecies indicted by the children of the Promise; or of Jacob's descendants. Before this; in verse 6; Moses according to other scripture lost his chance to enter the Promised Land because he allowed his own anger to rule over him; and smote the rock more than once. This is said to be a typology of Christ in relation to His wounds only occurring once; or something to that effect. Someone can help clarify that for me.
In any event; the Lord continued to use the rod of Moses along with the faithfulness of Joshua to carry out vengeance as the Lord required in beginning to smite and defeat Amalek. This was according to verse 16 to continue until their total defeat.
We need to remember in all this such statements as in the prophecy given to Abraham with the Amorites; namely that their iniquity would be judged; but not until it was "to the full". God was judging ungodly people and many who populated the surrounding land were children of the giants; or fallen angels who had relations with women and produced hybrid offspring. It was not for their righteousness that Israel was preserved but for His "name's sake" that they were chosen out of all the nations of the earth to the destiny that they had through the Covenant promises.
This appears to be the only event before the end of the 40 years and crossing of the Jordan (again in a miraculous manner) where a war had to be fought; so it is interesting that it was a controversy directly tied into Isaac's descendants. They were as predicted dwelling as nomads around the Northern Arabia area and later south of Judah (according to Wikipedia).
Great work! Just wanted to I understand the view as you stated it, Moses was supposed to speak to the rock the second time, Christ was the rock 1 Corinthians 10-4. Moses was to smite the rock in Exodus 17:6. And speak to it in Numbers 20:8-11. It seems in verse 10 Moses shows frustration and says "Hear now, ye rebels; must "WE" fetch you waters out of this rock?
I believe he misrepresented the Lord and made it look like theLord was angry. But to fulfill the type, if the rock was Christ scripture says it pleased the Lord to bruise him. And then we come to Numbers 20:12.
In any event; the Lord continued to use the rod of Moses along with the faithfulness of Joshua to carry out vengeance as the Lord required in beginning to smite and defeat Amalek. This was according to verse 16 to continue until their total defeat.
We need to remember in all this such statements as in the prophecy given to Abraham with the Amorites; namely that their iniquity would be judged; but not until it was "to the full". God was judging ungodly people and many who populated the surrounding land were children of the giants; or fallen angels who had relations with women and produced hybrid offspring. It was not for their righteousness that Israel was preserved but for His "name's sake" that they were chosen out of all the nations of the earth to the destiny that they had through the Covenant promises.
This appears to be the only event before the end of the 40 years and crossing of the Jordan (again in a miraculous manner) where a war had to be fought; so it is interesting that it was a controversy directly tied into Isaac's descendants. They were as predicted dwelling as nomads around the Northern Arabia area and later south of Judah (according to Wikipedia).
Great work! Just wanted to I understand the view as you stated it, Moses was supposed to speak to the rock the second time, Christ was the rock 1 Corinthians 10-4. Moses was to smite the rock in Exodus 17:6. And speak to it in Numbers 20:8-11. It seems in verse 10 Moses shows frustration and says "Hear now, ye rebels; must "WE" fetch you waters out of this rock?
I believe he misrepresented the Lord and made it look like theLord was angry. But to fulfill the type, if the rock was Christ scripture says it pleased the Lord to bruise him. And then we come to Numbers 20:12.
Thanks.
God bless.
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