Bible Discussion Thread

 
  • Dorothy Hough - 2 years ago
    Why , when the rapture is written ,does it say (The son of Man ) and not (The Son of God.) Thank you Dorothy
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Whenever Jesus spoke of Himself as the Son of Man, He did not use the Greek word ANER - that simply denotes an individual male; instead, He used the Greek ANTHROPOS, from which our English word anthropology is derived. It means humanity, and includes men, women and children. The Literal Concordant Translation uses the term, Son of Mankind. This helps us to understand that Jesus is talking about a corporate man whenever He refers to the Son of Mankind. This adds depth and meaning to everything He says in regard to His redemption and His coming again.

    In the conversation Jesus had with Nicodemus, Jesus said, "No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: even the Son of Man." ( John 3:13) We know that Jesus did not come down from heaven as a physical man. In this statement Jesus made a distinction between Himself and Adam, the first man. Adam was formed of dust; he did not come down from heaven. God blew His breath into Adam's nostrils, and he became a living soul - he was not a life-giving spirit. As we have already explained, he was a mixture of the earthy and the divine; he was an earthy image of God, for in a spiritual image of God there can be no dust. Man is not a physical image of God, for God is Spirit, and therefore an image of God has to be a spiritual image. Adam differed from the animals God had created in that he could think logically, he was creative, and he could worship God! Animals are unable to do these things. Adam's identification was NOT with his Creator, for he rebelled against God. In Adam all die (literally, all are dying). Therefore a new humanity was needed: a humanity that would be in agreement with God instead of in opposition to Him; a humanity that did not have any earthiness in it.

    An understanding of the Son of Man has to come to us by revelation. In Matthew 16 Jesus asked the disciples an important question, namely, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" After that He asked the disciples this very question, and
  • GiGi - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hi JC

    You have said many biblically accurate things here.

    The one thing I would like to speak to is that I believe that Jesus was indeed fully human as well as fully God in one person. Hi humanity was made of earthly things (matter) as his human body was formed in the womb of His mother Mary. His divinity was as it always was as God the Son, pure spirit, the same essential nature as the Father and the Holy Spirit. These three divine Persons from the Godhead (or the Trinity) that is unified a only one God. There was nothing earthly in Jesus divine nature, it had no matter as it always had no matter. But the two natures, human and divine were united in one Person but the natures were not mixed together to form a new part divine (no matter) and part human (matter) nature. This is classical Christian doctrine that goes back centuries upon centuries. This doctrine was universally accepted by the Protestant churches of the early Reformation.

    I am not sure if you were trying to say these same things in your post or were presenting the view that Jesus had no material (earthly as you said, made of matter) substance to Him. The whole point of saying God the Son was incarnated was to say He became a true human while still retaining His divinity

    I may have misunderstood your ideas in your post, so let me know if I have. God's blessing to you tonight
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Jesus Christ is God:

    Deity is the only explanation for all that He was and all that He did.

    (1) He was pre-existent with the Father. "The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not anything made that was made" ( John 1:2, 3, KJV). (Also see John 17:5 and Colossians 1:17.)

    (2) He is the Son of God.

    His enemies admitted: "He...said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God" ( John 5:18, KJV).

    Peter confessed: "And we believe and are sure that thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God" ( John 6:69, KJV).

    Jesus affirmed: "I and my Father are one" ( John 10:30, NIV).

    (3) He was sinless, as only God can be.

    Jesus challenged His enemies: "Which of you convinceth me of sin?" ( John 8:46, KJV).

    Peter testified: "...Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example that ye should follow his steps: who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth" ( 1 Peter 2:21, 22, KJV).

    Paul stated: "For he...made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" ( 2 Corinthians 5:21, KJV).

    (4) He forgives sin, as only God can.

    The Scribes said: "Who can forgive sins but God only?" ( Mark 2:7, KJV).

    Jesus said: "But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins..." ( Matthew 9:6, KJV). (Also see John 8:11.)

    Peter wrote: "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed" ( 1 Peter 2:24, KJV).

    (5) He performed miraculous works.

    He healed the sick: Matthew 8:9-13; Luke 4:31-44; 5:12-15; John 4:43 to 5:16; and other references.

    He fed the hungry: John 6; Mark 8, etc.

    He raised the dead: Luke 7:11-18; John 11:1-46.

    Jesus Christ Became Man:

    "And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us...full of grace and truth" ( John 1:14, KJV). (See also Philippians 2:7, 8.)
  • GiGi - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Thank you JC
  • S Spencer. - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Donna.

    Why the son of man?

    Part 3 of 3.

    Summary

    The Son of Man is a title that was used exclusively by Jesus - His disciples never addressed Him as such. Jesus used it to emphasize His humanity. The title goes back to the Book of Daniel where the Son of Man would inherit the everlasting kingdom of God. It is a designation of the Messiah. At His trial Jesus acknowledged that He indeed was the Son of Man - the one who would bring in God's everlasting kingdom. When the religious leaders heard this they accused Him of blasphemy - making Himself equal with God. The purpose of the title seems to be Jesus' own emphasis on His humanity.

    By Don Stewart.

    Side note:

    The revelation of the Lord coming by miraculous birth was given to them as a sign by Isaiah. but I guess that didn't explain his humanity. after all Immanuel means God with us. Matthew 1:23.

    Moreover the LORD spake again unto Ahaz, saying,

    Ask thee a sign of the LORD thy God; ask it either in the depth, or in the height above.

    But Ahaz said, I will not ask, neither will I tempt the LORD.

    And he said, Hear ye now, O house of David; Is it a small thing for you to weary men, but will ye weary my God also?

    Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. Isaiah 7:14.

    I believe Jesus humanity ties to the kinsman redeemer instituted by Moses in Leviticus 25:48-49.

    And you also see it carried out in the book of Ruth.

    In Revelation 5:2-5. you see John weep because no one was able to loosen the seven seals. For one you had to be worthy and second you had to be a kinsman. "John was looking for a MAN" Jesus humanity qualified him.

    I hope that helps.

    God bless.
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    An understanding of the Son of Man has to come to us by revelation. In Matthew 16 Jesus asked the disciples an important question, namely, "Who do people say that the Son of Man is?" After that He asked the disciples this very question, and Peter replied, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God." Notice that in these verses the designations, the Son of Man, Christ, and the Son of God, all refer to one and the same person. This informs us of the different aspects of Christ's being and His work. For example, just as a man can be a son, husband, father, grandfather, doctor, Christian and evangelist, so Jesus Christ is the Son of Man (the head of the corporate new humanity), Christ (the anointed One), and the only begotten Son of God. Our sonship is in the corporate Christ. Each of these titles refers to a different aspect of the work He was to accomplish, and now is accomplishing.

    Now listen to Christ's reference to the source of that understanding. He said, "Flesh and blood did not reveal this to you, but My Father who is in heaven." This understanding did not come from Peter's mind; it came by revelation! Even so, the understanding of who the Son of Man is, has to come to us by revelation!

    May The Good Lord Bless You

    JC
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    (1) His miraculous birth was prophesied 800 years before His coming: "Behold a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Emmanuel" ( Isaiah 7:14, KJV).

    (2) The prophecy was fulfilled to the letter. "Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favor with God. And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus" ( Luke 1:30, 31, KJV).

    (3) Jesus demonstrated human characteristics: He became tired ( John 4:6). He thirsted ( John 19:28), He ate food ( Luke 24:40-43), He showed feelings ( Mark 6:34), He wept ( John 11:35), He knew temptation ( Hebrews 4:15), and He died ( John 19:30).

    Jesus Christ Accomplished the Works of His Father:

    (1) He died on the Cross. This is the fundamental theme of the Gospel.

    The fact of His death-One-fourth of the Gospels are dedicated to His Passion and Resurrection. (a) For this purpose He came into the world ( John 12:27). (b) His death was prophesied hundreds of years before He came ( Isaiah 53:3-8).

    The meaning of His death. (a) It was a ransom for sin ( Matthew 20:28; Romans 3:24; 1 Peter 1:18). (b) It was to pay the penalty for sin ( Romans 3:24; 1 John 2:2; 4:10). Man is the object of God's wrath because of rebellion and sin, but God took the initiative in satisfying His wrath by sending His own Son to Calvary. (c) It is a reconciliation. The enmity between us and God has ended ( Romans 5:10), and we are restored to God ( 2 Corinthians 5:18, 19). (d) It is a substitution: He died in our place ( 1 Peter 3:18; 2 Corinthians 5:21). (e) In summary, the matter of sin has been completely dealt with ( 1 Peter 2:24; Hebrews 9:26; Hebrews 10:12).

    (2) He was resurrected from the dead: This is unique and fundamental to Christianity.

    The reality of the Resurrection ( John 20:1-10; 1 Corinthians 15:4).

    The credibility of the Resurrection: (a) Jesus predicted it: Matthew 13:39-41; Luke 24:1-7. (b) The tomb was empty: John 20:11-13. (c) Many witnesses saw Him alive: the women ( Luke 23:55, 56); Mary Magdalene
  • GiGi - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hi again JC

    I am sure glad that we have the Scriptures to reveal to us who Jesus truly is.
  • S Spencer. - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Donna.

    Why the son of man?

    Part 2 of 3.

    Jesus said.

    The Son of Man indeed goes just as it is written of him, but woe to that man by whom the Son of Man is betrayed! It would have been good for that man if he had not been born ( Matthew 26:24).

    It Is A Messianic Designation

    The title "Son of Man" was a designation for the Messiah. The Book of Daniel predicted that the Son of Man would inherit God's everlasting kingdom.

    And behold, one like the Son of Man, coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of Days, and they brought him near before him. Then to him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom the one which shall not be destroyed ( Daniel 7:13,14).

    Jesus Employed The Designation At His Trial

    When Jesus was on trial and was asked if He were the Messiah, He referred to this prediction:

    It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting on the right hand of the power, and coming on the clouds of heaven ( Matthew 26:64).

    This statement infuriated the religious rulers. They accused Him of blasphemy for claiming equal authority with God. It was clear to them that Jesus referred to Daniel's prophecy and hence was claiming to be the Messiah.

    The Title Emphasizes That He Was Human

    It seems by using the title "Son of Man" Jesus wanted to convey the truth that He was entirely human.

    see part 3 of 3.
  • S Spencer. - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hi Donna.

    Thanks to Brother Chris I did some more research on why Jesus referred himself as the son of man in certain instances.

    Part 1.

    Jesus' favorite designation, in referring to Himself, was the "Son of Man." The Gospels record some seventy-eight times that Jesus used this title for Himself. For example, when He asked His disciples the question about His identity, He said,

    Who do men say that I, the Son of Man, am? ( Matthew 16:13).

    Though the Bible does not define its exact meaning, the title "Son of Man" probably refers to the fact that Jesus was perfect humanity. He, as God, came down and lived among us as the perfect human being. By doing this, He fulfilled the Law of Moses and did what no other human being was able to do. By using this title, He is identifying with the people He had come to save.

    It Is Connected With His Earthly Life

    The title is connected with the earthly life of Jesus.

    But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins - he said to the paralytic ( Mark 2:10).

    Jesus said

    So the Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath ( Mark 2:28).

    Jesus also said.

    And Jesus said to him, "Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay his head ( Matthew 8:20)

    Jesus gave the reason for His coming to earth.

    For the Son of Man has come to seek and to save that which was lost ( Luke 19:10).

    It Is Connected With His Sufferings

    "Son of Man" is also connected with the sufferings of Jesus on behalf of humanity.

    And he began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things, and be rejected by the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again ( Mark 8:31).

    This Speaks Of His Exaltation And Rule

    The title "Son of Man" also has to do with his exaltation and rule over humanity.

    When the Son of Man comes in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then he will sit on the throne of his glory ( Matthew 25:31).
  • Love of Jesus - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Because Satan comes to earth first. Looking like Jesus. Satan is the 6th seal that opens & has 5 months or around 5 months to rein. When the 7th seal opens Jesus Christ will be here on earth.
  • S Spencer - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hi Donna.

    I fully agree with Jc.

    I normally don't like to add to anything so well stated if there's no improvement.

    This is just a side note.

    Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. In fact, Son of Man is the primary title Jesus used when referring to Himself Matthew 12:32; 13:37; Luke 12:8; John 1:51). The only use of Son of Man in a clear reference to Jesus, spoken by someone other than Jesus, came from the lips of Stephen as he was being martyred Acts 7:56.

    Son of God.

    Son of Man.

    These are both titles of Our Blessed Saviour. The title Son of God, emphasised His Divinity, and that He is "part" of the Trinity, and God Himself. The Title Son of Man is from Daniel and emphasises His humanity and His messianic purpose in coming to save us, as it points back to the prophecy, which it fulfills. Rapture included.

    God bless.
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    The Results of His Work:

    (1) He ascended to His Father ( Luke 24:49-53; Acts 1:6-11).

    (2) He is our eternal Mediator ( 1 Timothy 2:5; Hebrews 8:6; 1 John 2:1.

    (3) He is our Savior: "Thou shalt call his name Jesus: for he shall save his people from their sins" ( Matthew 1:21, KJV). "Him hath God exalted with his right hand to be a Prince and a Savior, for to give repentance to Israel, and forgiveness of sins" ( Acts 5:31, KJV).

    He is the only Savior. "Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to men by which we must be saved" ( Acts 4:12, NIV).

    He is a complete Savior. "Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them" ( Hebrews 7:25, KJV).

    He is a personal Savior. "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness: and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation" ( Romans 10:9, 10, KJV).

    The Consummation of His Work:

    (1) He shall return again to this earth ( Acts 1:11; Hebrews 10:37; John 14:3).

    (2) Believers in Christ shall be bodily resurrected to begin a new, undying life ( 1 Thessalonians 4:17-18; 1 Corinthians 15:51-58).

    (3) He will reign as King of kings and Lord of lords over His new creation ( 2 Peter 3:10-13; Revelation 22:3-5).

    God Bless

    JC
  • Roman - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Dorothy,

    There is no rapture, that is a man-made construct.

    There are only resurrections.
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Whether one holds the pre, mid or post tribulation rapture viewpoint, almost all agree on one thing: there are "seven years set aside by God" for prophetic events. These "last seven years of this age" are commonly called "the tribulation" or "seven years of tribulation." This concept is derived from a prophecy in the book of Daniel. The angel Gabriel came to Daniel and gave him the prophecy.

    First, the verses from which the prophecy comes. Daniel 9:22b-23 "O Daniel, I have now come forth to give you skill to understand. 23 At the beginning of your supplications the command went out, and I have come to tell you, for you are greatly beloved; therefore consider the matter, and understand the vision:" and read Daniel 9:24-27 Understanding of the prophecy.

    We all need to be ready

    JC
  • Ronald Whittemore - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hey JC,

    You are correct we need to be ready because it will be horrific, this world will change as we have never seen. It will be devastating if people are looking for something that is not coming. If I may point to a few things, you may look at these seven years. The prophecy that was given to Daniel, told Israel the exact time Jesus, the Messiah would first come, and they ignored it. In vs. 24 it tells who this prophecy is determined for. It also lists 6 things that will be done.

    This prophecy was determined upon Daniel's people and the holy city, Jerusalem. Will the end times be upon just Israel and Jerusalem, or will it be upon the entire world? The six things that will be done 1. finish the transgression. 2. make an end of sins. 3. make reconciliation for iniquity. 4. bring in everlasting righteousness. 5. seal up the vision and prophecy. 6. anoint the most Holy. Have these 6 things already been done, fulfilled?

    If the 70-week prophecy has been fulfilled, how will that change what is taught? Can we be ready if what we are ready for is incorrect?

    Just something to look at.

    God bless,

    RLW
  • Chris - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Roman. I understand that the word 'resurrection' only applies to 'rising from the dead'. One cannot be resurrected if still alive. In 1 Thessalonians 4:17, Paul writes that "we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord." This can't be a resurrection for those still alive on the Earth, as they've never tasted of death, but must be a 'catching away', or 'rapture'. But when that happens, is the oft debated teaching.
  • DOMINION, AUTHORITY, POWER in the Holy Spirit - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Jesus did not become the Son of Man until he was born HUMAN.

    The teaching is, that earth and creation was made for man (translates as male or female).

    Only Humans had Been given DOMINION; power and authority to use it. Satan stole it when Adam and Eve sinned. Satan was created. He had no authority to be on earth as Human. His first form was as a serpent. His fallen angelic form, took possession of that serpent to deceive the humans.

    Jesus Took Back the dominion ( Genesis 3:15) from Satan at the CROSS. He crushed Satan's head (power).

    Please understand this. Satan has no authority or power over BORN AGAIN BELIEVERS.

    We don't have to lay down and suffer Satans threats or oppression. He cannot get inside of Believers in Jesus. We have the Holy Spirit indwelling inside of our born again spirits given to us through Jesus.

    We have the authority and the power to command Satan to GET OUT of our lives, our family, our homes, job opportunities, relatives. Our prayers have power, but we have to accept it and use it. Our relationship to Jesus needs to become close. We can only do that by getting into the Bible and soaking up scriptures for ourself.

    If someone hands you a billion dollars, and you only use it, one hamburger and French fries at a time__you can't see what Jesus provided for you. Scriptures are your weapons. ( Matthew 12:43-45). The evil spirits come back ever so often to see if you really meant for them to move out. Reaffirm As Needed. Ephesians 6: they are invisible, but when "all hell" breaks loose, in your world: it's time to fight back with your ARSENAL OF WEAPONS. Memorize the scriptures. Ask the Holy Spirit to bring them to your mind; in the heat of battle.

    Walking free of hidden sun, or forgotten sin, can be dealt with at 1 John 1:9, 1 John 2:1-2 + 2:20. The Holy One is the Holy Spirit.

    We are HUMANS and beloved of God. Let's walk in the provision Jesus purchased in Blood.

    Mishael
  • GiGi - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hello Mishael,

    My thinking on this goes along with what Jesus said to His disciples in Mt. 28:18

    "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth." God created the universe and all creatures, He has the dominion and authority ( Dan. 4:34-35, Jude 25) over all. He is the Only True Wise Sovereign. When Jesus was incarnated, He still possessed all of His divine nature and attributes. He was still sovereign. Yet, in Philippians 2:5-6 we are told that He emptied Himself. He did not empty Himself of His divinity because that is impossible (God does not change in His nature) but it means that He lay aside His manifested glory and submitted to the Father in all things, though He is equal in all things to the Father. While living in on earth, Jesus did not exercise all of His inherent qualities in order that His mission of salvation would be fulfilled. If He exercised these inherent qualities on earth, no one could have done any harm to Him. But He allowed this to occur and chose the scourging and the cross and death. During His death and after His resurrection, He went into hell to disarm the powers there, triumphing over them and went to heaven to receive the Father's permission to once again express His power, authority and dominion as it was before He was incarnated.

    Therefore, when He said this to His disciples in Matthew 28, He was letting them know where all of their authority and dominion comes from-Jesus-not themselves. So, I do not believe that believers have been given authority nor dominion because Jesus said that ALL authority belongs to Him. We can have dominion and authority through Jesus only, in His name, but we do not inherently possess it like Jesus. It is borrowed from Him. So, in our standing as children of God, we can stand against the Satan and his fallen ones by the authority of Jesus only. We can, In Jesus' name send demons and their influences away from our lives and the lives of our loved ones and we can ask and receive help and healing
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    The phrases "Son of man" and "Son of God" are used for Jesus Christ to refer to His humanity and deity. The message of scripture was that Jesus Christ was both God and man. What follows below is a fuller explanation of both terms.

    "Son of Man" has messianic overtones and refers to person of human descendent. It refers to the Messiah who would born of a virgin ( Genesis 3:15; Isaiah 7:14; 9:6; Micah 5:2). It is a title of the Messiah, who is Jesus Christ.

    Son of Man - New Testament

    The phrase "Son of Man" occurs 88 times in the New Testament and only four times outside of the gospels. In the New Testament, the term has additional meaning. It still refers to a human, but it is also a title for Jesus Christ. Jesus was the ultimate human. He was God in human flesh.

    In summary, when "Son of Man" is used as a title it refers to the humanity of Jesus Christ and "Son of God" refers to the deity of Christ. Both terms were used of Christ because He was man, and He was God. "Son of Man" also referred to the Messiah. The Jews understood the meaning of these terms. Today, we focus in on the word "son" and sometimes are not aware that both expressions had special meanings.

    Together, they mean that Jesus was completely man and He was completely God. He was the God-man. He was the eternal, holy God who came in human flesh. Without being a man, He could not have died. If He was not God, He would have been a sinner. But as the God-man, He was the sinless man - the perfect sacrifice - a sinless sacrifice for our sins. He returned to life and ascended back to heaven. Praise the Lord!
  • Chris - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Thanks for your explanation, JC Servant, which I can certainly agree to. Though when I first looked at the question by Dorothy, I mulled over it for a very long time, looking at several Scriptures where these terms were used in the NT. And even after giving some time over this question, I still wasn't able to come to any conclusion as to why Jesus sometimes used the personal pronoun & at other times used the phrase, Son of Man.

    For example, in Mark 14:21 we read, "The Son of man indeed goeth, as it is written of him: but woe to that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! good were it for that man if he had never been born."

    And then in verses 24 & 25, "And he said unto them, This is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many...Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God."

    If Jesus uses 'Son of Man' in verse 21, would He not also say (in v 25), 'This is the Son of Man's blood of the new testament...Verily the Son of Man says unto you, He will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that the Son of Man drinks it new in the kingdom of God.'

    Or, back to verse 21, using the personal pronoun instead, 'I indeed goeth...but woe to that man by whom I am betrayed...."

    If anyone has thoughts why Jesus chose to use that term in some of His Words to the people & then at other times uses the personal pronoun. There could be some nuance in eastern thought & expression that prompts such usage at various occasions of verbal expression. Some have suggested that it was the Gospel writers' choice to use them since it was their recollection of events & words spoken & not necessarily Jesus' Words, which of course can't be ascertained. Maybe what we might learn will then help Dorothy with her question.
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    A thoughtful reading of the gospels makes us aware of the fact that Jesus called Himself the Son of Man whenever He talked about His ministry, the redemption He was about to accomplish, and His coming this is such a frequent occurrence, it is very important that we understand what Jesus meant by this designation.

    Have you ever wondered why Jesus referred to Himself as the Son of Man (Humanity or Mankind) when the scriptures say that He was born of a woman? How does this fit together? We are often puzzled when two statements seemingly don't fit together, but as we grow in spiritual knowledge we marvel at the wisdom of God, the unity of the scriptures, and the unity that is ours in the Spirit!

    Our first image of God is in the earthy, natural sense. We can only get a true image of God in Christ. In the gospel of John, we find many instances where Jesus described His spiritual being by using the personal pronoun "I". He said, "I am the way, and the truth, and the lifeI am the door of the sheepI am the good shepherdI am the bread of lifeI am the resurrection and the lifeI am the true vineI am the light of the world. I am from above." ( Jn. 14:6; 10: 7; 10:11,14; 6:35; 11:25; 15;1; 8:12; 8:23) By saying, "I am," He introduced and emphasized the true essence of His being. He was not in the process of becoming - this is who He always has been and is and will be. These characteristics also describe the very essence of the being of God. Since God does not change, all these facets of His being are in perfection in Him. There cannot be any increase or decrease; there is no corruption in Him; His life always is, and it never changes. Since Christ's life was a perfect representation of God's invisible life, He is also called the Son of God.
  • Chris - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Thanks JC Servant for those thoughts. I fully agree to what you've shared & was particularly interested in your specific comment: "that Jesus called Himself the Son of Man whenever He talked about His ministry, the redemption He was about to accomplish, and His coming." This is indeed worthy of consideration & probably what I was missing in trying to find how "Son of Man" was used. I will keep this in mind when re-reading the Gospels. And indeed, the "I AM" spoken by Him, clearly alluded to the "true essence of His being", that of being vital within the Deity. Thank you again for that clarity.
  • GiGi - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Well said, JC
  • S Spencer - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Well stated Jc!!

    Not much one can add and in context.

    God bless.
  • JC SERVANT - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Although Jesus sometimes used the personal pronoun "I", at other times He called Himself the Son of Man. Why did Jesus NOT say, "I am going to be rejected, I am going to be crucified, I will rise again, I will come again?" The questions Jesus asked and the answers He gave, provide an insight into the spiritual realm and give us the answers to many of our questions.

    In John 9 Jesus asked the man who had been healed of his blindness, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?" The man replied with a question, "Who is He, Lord, that I may believe in Him?" Jesus answered, "You have both seen Him, and He is the One who is talking with you." Here Jesus clearly identifies Himself as being the Son of Man, yet we still wonder why He spoke of Himself in this way. There must be an important spiritual truth in this statement that needs to be revealed to us!

    In determining who the Son of Man is, we have to take into consideration that in God's eyes there are only two men, namely, Adam and Christ. Adam is the old humanity; Christ is the new humanity. Everyone who has ever lived, and everyone who is presently living, and everyone who will live in the future, is either in Adam (the old humanity) or in Christ (the new humanity). Therefore we see that Adam is a corporate man, and that Christ is also a corporate man. Since Christ referred to Himself as the Son of Man, we realize that the Son of Man must be one with the corporate Christ. In Adam we only have an earthy image of God. Christ's human birth was necessary to produce a spiritual image of God in man. Jesus called Himself the Son of Man because He was manifested physically in a human body (born of a woman), and spiritually as the new humanity (the second man - and this man was born from above).

    Whenever Jesus spoke of Himself as the Son of Man, He did not use the Greek word ANER - that simply denotes an individual male; instead, He used the Greek ANTHROPOS, from which our English word anthropology is derived. It means humanity, and inc
  • S Spencer - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Amen JC servant.

    Well stated.

    God bless.



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