Bible Discussion Thread

Is praying in tongues biblical?

Hello, Michael R. Piland,

Praying in tongues biblical? Yes! & yes. Please don't let people tell you what the Bible says, & teach you. Scripture says if you lack wisdom ask GOD. James 1:5, here are relevant scriptures:

* Mark 16:17, in context, Mark 16, Acts 2, Acts 10, Acts 19:6, 1Corinthians 13,

* 1Corinthians 12, * 1Corinthians 14,

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The word "perfect" (teleion) is an adjective here used as a noun. It is in the NEUTER gender. If "perfect" were referring to a person, it would be masculine or feminine. Since it is in the neuter gender, it is not referring to a person, but an object-the completed Word of God.

Now, if it also helps there a vast difference in the way the Apostle Paul explains tongues 1st Corinthians from what's read in Acts.

Nowhere in Acts do you find the term "Baptism of the Holy Ghost" in connection with speaking in tongues.

The baptism of the Holy Ghost is related to salvation and not tongues ( 1st Corinthians 12:13).

There is NO command in the Bible to speak with unknown tongues.

A person who does not have the Holy Spirit is not saved ( Romans 8:9 and 1st John 4:13).

A wicked generation seeks a sign ( Matthew 12:39).

The tongues movement of today is NOT Acts 2 tongues, but the CARNAL tongues of 1st Corinthians.

The tongues of the Bible (in both Acts and 1 Corinthians) were always understandable, known, established, earthly, languages; not indiscernible sounds and utterances as used by the Charismatic Movement today in modern times.

God always initiated the miracle of tongues in the Bible, not men ( Acts 2 and 10). In sharp contrast, men initiate the false tongues spoken in Pentecostal churches today.

The gift of tongues in 1st Corinthians was simply the usage of known languages, which some didn't understand, so Paul told them not to speak in foreign languages in multi-lingual congregations unless an interpreter is present. Notice that the gift of tongues in 1st Corinthians is different than the miracle of tongues in Acts 2. In Acts 2 Peter spoke in Greek, but at least 16 different nations heard each man in his own language.

If it helps...I speak in tongues daily but they're the tongues from 1st Corinthians. How? I'm multilingual. I speak English (primary), Spanish, Portuguese and Italian. Tongues meaning languages -- I speak more than one.

Thank you Daniel for that clear, fundamental teaching on 'tongues'. However, I was somewhat confused by your penultimate paragraph, referring to tongues (in 1 Corinthians) as a "usage of known languages". I do believe that actual languages are spoken of in this letter, rather than unintelligible sounds, but the question arises, what part does the utterance of a known learned language play when Paul speaks of the "diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit" ( 1 Corinthians 12:4)? In other words, if the Spirit gives one the gift of Tongues, how does that compare with someone who already knows that tongue - it can't be a gift then?

You mentioned that you are multi-lingual; I would understand that these languages were all learned by you. Paul too, would have spoken several languages I'm sure. But all those learned languages cannot be said to be received of the Spirit since they were learned. I've read these Corinthians passages over again, keeping in mind your explanation that known languages are spoken of, but I find that several verses pop up that just don't allow me to proceed with that thought. And I refer especially to 1 Corinthians 14:2,13,14: all these verses seem to indicate that this 'unknown' language was a language that neither the speaker nor the hearer understood, thus the need for an interpreter. So if neither person understood the language, then the speaker must have received it from the Spirit. Or, if the speaker understood the language, then it wasn't a spiritual gift. Maybe I've misunderstood your paragraph, so I seek clarification. Thank you.

Thank you too for your comments brother.

I don't necessarily like to call tongues in Corinthians 1 carnal as in "of the flesh" but meaning they weren't the same tongues in the book of Acts (which is true). In Acts, all spoke tongues from each others province and this was the sign God gave only to those Jews that were in the court of Solomon as prophesied by Joel.

There was a spiritual gift to minister in tongues (other languages) too. Is not the ability to play music for God a Spiritual gift due to its use? The same for those who are bi-lingual/multi-lingual. Paul warns of those who speak in an unknown tongue (not speaking of the gibberish spoken by churches of the 20th-century/21st-century West); but those who spoke in another language without interpreter. If you travel today to a country as a missionary such as Vietnam; you're going to find a majority don't speak English. If you preach to those Vietnamese and they don't understand your message; this is not because God cannot work but because there's a language barrier. To the mission incoming an unknown tongue and to the receiver an unknown tongue.

It may not be a point that you agree with or others do. But, I believe this to be the correct interpretation of tongues from both contexts given in the New Testament. And I hold no hardened heart for those who've disagreement. God bless you and the best I can encourage is to study the Word and God will reveal to you everything you need to know Spiritually.

Thank you brother for those further thoughts; I will re-consider them. Though I know that when I get to Scriptures such as 1 Corinthians 14:14, "For if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful", I simply can't re-interpret it in any other way, except to read that Paul speaks of praying in a language he didn't know. And why? Because his "understanding (of it) was unfruitful"; it seems he had no idea what he was praying, except that his prayer was directed to God in & by the Spirit. Anyway, I will continue to consider what you have shared. Every blessing.

The short answer is: Yes, tongues are biblical and that can be said one of two ways. The 1st, tongues were an outpouring of the Holy Spirit for non-believing Jews on the day of Pentecost (Acts Chapter 2). The 2nd, tongues from Greek to English simply mean languages.

Ephesians 1:13 tell us,

"In whom (Christ) ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with the holy Spirit of promise."

We are sealed by the indwelling of the Holy Spirit upon the moment of belief; and we do not need to seek for any further proof of our salvation, such as the "speaking in tongues." We need no greater assurance than is found in God's Word. John 3:16 promises that if we believe in Jesus Christ we have, right now! eternal life.

The Holy Spirit will never give anyone the gift of tongues now. They are not for today. 1 Corinthians 13:8 tells us

"whether there be tongues, they shall cease:..."

"Cease" is the Greek verb "pauo." It means to cease or stop completely. It is used in the perfect tense. This means that when tongues do cease, the action of ceasing will never be interrupted, but will continue forever. In plain words, once tongues cease they will never be reactivated at anytime in the future. It is also in the middle voice, denoting emphasis. The most emphatic statement in this verse is "TONGUES SHALL CEASE".

1 Corinthians 13:10 tells us when tongues will cease.

"But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away."

The key word in this verse is "perfect." Some say it is referring to Christ's coming.

"Perfect" is the Greek word "teleion" and means "full grown and mature, complete." It refers to the end of a process or development. The Second Coming of Christ is not a process, but an instantaneous event. "Perfect" is never used in the New Testament for the Second Coming of Christ, the Millennium, or Eternal State.

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