Bible Discussion Thread

"As soon as Jesus heard the word that was spoken, he saith unto the ruler of the synagogue, Be not afraid, only believe." Mark 5:36

King James uses "saith" which is the archaic present tense of say. I'm a little confused as to whether the verb is used in the past or present tense given that all new versions translate to said.

Thank you

In Bible scriptures, whenever you see the archaic form of a word, in this case, "Saith" we should always replace the "th" with an "S". Sometimes it is also "eth". We still should replace it with an "S". When I study the bible, NOT just read it, I make it a habit to

Here are some examples... "Speaketh" = Speaks, "Hath" = Has, "Maketh" = Makes, "Taketh" = Takes, "Goeth" = Goes, "Knoweth" = Knows, "Delivereth" = Deliver, and so on. Go ahead, give it a try. This method will help you get more understanding of Bible scriptures. Or just type "Decoding Archaic Bible words" and it will lead you to my channel which teaches more than 300 Archaic words translated to English. I 1,000% guarantee that you will be happy you did. I truly hope that this comment has helped many.

Looking at the Greek word for 'says' ('legei'), it appears that the word used in this verse is in the 'present' tense. Some other versions use the past tense according to the manuscript used & the translators' understanding of it. Though, in this account in Mark, I don't feel that it would alter the meaning or substance of the verse dramatically.