Bible Discussion Thread

How is Paul using the words in Isaiah 49:8 in 2 corinthians 6:2

Hi Gail. Just as a quick background first: Isaiah chapters 49 to 57 are chapters which speak of the coming salvation through God's Servant-Messiah. As much as we see that Israel is spoken of, the intent of the message therein, is to show that it would only be through Israel that their Messiah would be revealed. We know that Israel as a nation always failed God in many ways, but God had not forsaken her, for through her would the Salvation of Israel & the World come. Many Jews (though not all) have recognized that the Messiah is spoken of here in Isaiah, particularly when you get to Isaiah 52:13 to Isaiah 53:1-12, but when the Messiah did come to them, they failed to recognize Him & killed Him. But death could not hold Him: His apostles would be spiritually energized to take the Good News to the world, especially the latterly converted Saul, that the World may have a chance to hear & receive God's Plan for forgiveness & redemption.

So when the Apostle Paul refers to Isaiah 49:8, he understood the general principle in Isaiah that the Messiah God would be willing to hear their cries for help - that His Mercy would come to Israel, as well to the Gentiles. And though Israel couldn't perceive who this Messiah would be, it was God Himself (the Redeemer of Israel: v7) through His Son, that would bring about a full salvation for all. So Paul could say, "that God was in Christ (the Messiah God), reconciling the world unto himself..."( 2 Corinthians 5:19) and begging the Corinthian believers that "ye receive not the grace of God in vain"; since Isaiah himself prophesied that God's day of salvation had now come & you Corinthians were blessed to receive it ( 2 Corinthians 6:1,2). Therefore, they should accept Paul's work on their behalf & to refuse sin, not allowing it into their lives & the Church, knowing, "the terror of the Lord" against all doers of evil ( 2 Corinthians 5:11; 2 Corinthians 6:14-18).