Bible Discussion Thread

 
  • Don Meadows - 2 years ago
    Was Ruth's marriage to Boas legal? Moses commanded that no Moabite was ever to come into the assembly of Israel. Therefore, the lineage to David and Jesus highlights disobedience to Mosiac law. Or, did Ruth's vows to Naomi and Boas mean she became an adopted Jew. Of, course, God works in mysterious ways (Rahab, for example) so his son, Jesus, could do these work of redemption for all?
  • Alex N - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Don i think that the covenant Ruth made with Naomi made her a Jew or 1 of Naomi's ppl....God was for sure in this covenant.

    Intreat me not to leave thee my mother...for thy ppl shall be my ppl and where ever you go i will go...And your God will be my God and where ever thou goeth i will go etc....And the Child Ruth had with Boaz was Obed the Father of Jesse the Father of David the Father of Solomon....Related to Christ Jesus....The Messiah....Ruth neva dreamed her posterity wd go so far....All the way to Jesus...And the Cross ...ty Jesus...GBU Don
  • Don Meadows - In Reply - 2 years ago
    I agree with your presumptions. However, there must have been Jews at that time who believed "the law" would make any grace over what Moses said in the inspired Word. As I said somewhere, God's grace does not always surrender to man's understanding. ("Man means humankind. Thanks for your sharing.
  • S Spencer - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hi Don.

    The book of Ruth is a wonderful book. It is the story of the Kinsman redeemer. Christ is our Kinsman redeemer! The book of Ruth models Christ redeeming us.

    We lear about the Kinsman redeemer here in Leviticus 25:25-28 "If thy brother be waxen poor, and hath sold away some of his possession, and if any of his kin come to redeem it, then shall he redeem that which his brother sold.

    And if the man have none to redeem it, and himself be able to redeem it;

    Then let him count the years of the sale thereof, and restore the overplus unto the man to whom he sold it; that he may return unto his possession.

    But if he be not able to restore it to him, then that which is sold shall remain in the hand of him that hath bought it until the year of jubile: and in the jubile it shall go out, and he shall return unto his possession."

    Jesus Christ would redeem all who trust in his name from the slavery of sin and death. He had to be able and willing.

    Read Revelation 5:2-10.

    "And I saw a strong angel proclaiming with a loud voice, Who is worthy to open the book, and to loose the seals thereof?.....

    Verse 9. "And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;"

    Another interesting study is the Jubilee and Pentecost.

    I hope this helps.

    God bless.
  • Giannis - In Reply - 2 years ago
    According to Mose's Law a gentile could be accepted by Hebrews as one of their own if he/she accepted the Hebrew God, follow the Law and the traditions and undergo circumsision (males). He then becomes a convert (proselyte), an equal member of the Israelitic community.
  • Don meadows - In Reply - 2 years ago
    On what scripture do you base your understanding.
  • Giannis - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Exodus 12:48-49

    "48! And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.

    49 One law shall be to him that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourneth among you."

    Also Leviticus 19:33-34, Leviticus 24:23, Matthew 23:15 etc



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