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BIBLE DISCUSSION THREAD 203479

Bible Discussion Thread

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  • R
    Ragini gaur - 2 years ago
    Why have you not mentioned Rosh before Meshech in Ezekiel 38 verse 2.

    Have you done it intentionally or is it by mistake? Please cross check it and correct it.

    Thank you.
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  • C
    Chris - In Reply - 2 years ago
    Hello Ragini. The KJV has taken Ezekiel 38:2 directly from the original language, Hebrew. And in Hebrew, 'Rosh' refers to a 'chief or clan head'. Therefore, it has been understood that Ezekiel was referring to the chiefs of Meshech & Tubal (as also in verse 3) & not to a tribe called Rosh. However, the NKJV has adopted the understanding that Rosh speaks of a people, thereby making those verses to read, "prince of Rosh, Meshech & Tubal". So, neither interpretation is strictly right or wrong - it's how the translators have chosen to interpret the Hebrew for those verses.
    "Amen!"   Report



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