Bible Discussion Thread

 
  • John Paul Elliott/YesUs Love on Ephesians 2 - 1 year ago
    Gentleman could you kindly correct the name of Jesus and your scriptures to yes us it seems and you're welcome to look at Google Google when was the letter J installed in the Hebrew alphabet it wasn't it was done about 402 years ago there was no j in the time of Christ for sure as also prove the Yiddish have for the Yiddish portion of what they called Jews today or the Jewish or the Hebrew faith and never put the letter J in their alphabet they have their own alphabet they never put Jay in there and when the Jay was installed the people who call themselves Jews name themselves Jews and therefore stole the real name of yesass from the Christ and call him Jesus please let me know if that's something you guys really want to do the truth will set you free thanks so much yes
  • Browneyes878787 - In Reply on Ephesians 2 - 1 year ago
    Got answers

    Yeshua is the Hebrew name, and its English spelling is "Joshua." Iesous is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name, and its English spelling is "Jesus." Thus, the names "Joshua" and "Jesus" are essentially the same; both are English pronunciations of the Hebrew and Greek names for our Lord. (For examples of how the two names are interchangeable, see Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 in the KJV. In both cases, the word Jesus refers to the Old Testament character Joshua.

    As for the controversy over the letter J, it is much ado about nothing. It is true that the languages in which the Bible was written had no letter J. But that doesn't mean the Bible never refers to "Jerusalem" or "Judah." And it doesn't mean we cannot use the spelling "Jesus." If a person speaks and reads English, it is acceptable for him to spell things in an English fashion. Spellings can change even within a language: Americans write "Savior," while the British write "Saviour." The addition of a u (or its subtraction, depending on your point of view) has nothing to do with whom we're talking about. Jesus is the Savior, and He is the Saviour. Jesus and Yeshuah and Iesus are all referring to the same Person.

    We refer to Him as "Jesus" because, as English-speaking people, we know of Him through English translations of the Greek New Testament. Scripture does not value one language over another, and it gives no indication that we must resort to Hebrew when addressing the Lord. The command is to "call on the name of the Lord," with the promise that we "shall be saved" ( Acts 2:21; Joel 2:32). Whether we call on Him in English, Korean, Hindi, or Hebrew, the result is the same: the Lord is salvation.
  • Giannis - In Reply on Ephesians 2 - 1 year ago
    Hello Browneyes878787

    I have done some research on the internet and found out that the lettrer "J" was introduced into the English language sometime in the 1400's but it wasn't finallized till the 1700's. It's first pronunciation was as "I" but later it was transformed in a "dz" sound, as it is now. That letter was an invention for the Italian language actually but it was eventually introduced in all western languages. Most languages, like French and the Germanic languages pronounce it as "Y", as in the word "Yacht", but in English it became a "dz" sound. So in the 1611 edition of the KJV Bible the letter "I" is still used , so the name was "Iesus". In the following editions though it took the form "Jesus".

    Just for information, about the name "Jesus", in ancient greek sounds like the Hebrew "Ye" or the English "Je" were not common, the "sh" sound doesn't exist at all in grk masculine names in grk almost always end in "s" or "n" (only feminine names end in "a"), so "Yeshua" became "Iesous" in grk, then in Latin it became "Iesus", then in the archaic English again as "Iesus" and finally in modern English it became "Jesus".

    Finally you are right about the name "Joshua". In Hbr and grk it is Yeshua (Iesous) no matter if it is refered to Joshua of Nan or Jesus Christ. It is the same with the names Jacob and James. In Hebrew(Ya'acov) and greek (Iakovos) it is the same name.

    GBU
  • Chris - In Reply on Ephesians 2 - 1 year ago
    Very well explained, Browneyes. Those who object to using a 'J' for Jesus, seldom object to using 'J' for Jerusalem or Judah (as you pointed out). God receives & delights in the correctness in our living, not in the accuracy of our spelling & pronunciation.



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