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The spelling of Esaias that you see in Matthew 3:3, as well as other places in the New Testament (such as Matthew 4:14, John 12:38, Romans 9:27, etc.), is because the KJV translators preferred to record Isaiah's name as it's written in Greek (since the NT was written in that language). Whereas in the Old Testament, Isaiah is written as shown, the equivalent of the Hebrew, Ysha'yah (pr. yeh-shaw-yah), which means 'God (Yahweh) is salvation'.
Why is Isaiah spelled incorrectly??
Thank you.....
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