Reading through Matthew Chapter 24, and Matthew 24:13 says "But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved."
Our English Bible makes it sound like a challenge for us to endure unto the end, like we need to do whatever it takes to endure.
But the literal translation from the Greek is, "but the one who has endured," not the one who will, but the one who has endured unto the end, this one will be saved.
In the Greek text, this is an Aorist Participle, which shows the proof of those who are saved, and it matches the rest of the teachings in the New Testament.
The person who is saved WILL endure to the end. So we have the proof, and secondly, the promise of salvation. Salvation is a promise. We are saved now. And when all this is over, the ones who will be saved are the ones who have endured unto the end.
I believe the verse says what it means. To look circumspectly to see what the topic is, what is being said, here are the verses:
9Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake.
10And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.
11And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many.
12And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.
13But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
When you see the word "Then" it's telling you what is coming next, after the Beginning of Sorrows, and then you see the word "And" three times, that is a continuation/inclusion of things happening at that time, then we see the word "BUT", meaning a totally different statement but connected to what's being said. So, the topic is first, speaking to believers about what will happen during the end times, warnings. But the person that is able to endure all those things, until the end, those very people shall be saved. Logically, if you don't endure those things, you will not be saved.
Hello Jesse. If you don't mind I've got something to add to your comment. I don't see where you got your understanding of the meaning of the word (endure) as "but the one who has endured" Jesse in ( Mt. 24:13) from your comment. I see the word (endure) in the Strongs Concordance as #5278 in Greek, it means to stay under, (behind) i.e. remain, to undergo, i.e. bear (trials) have fortitude, persevere, abide, (take) patient (-ly) suffer, tarry behind. Also it would seem at least in part, the things this verse is saying one must endure unto the end are the things spoken of just before this verse in ( Mt. 24:9-12) The word (saved) is #4982: it means "safe" to save, i.e. deliver or protect, heal, preserve, be (make) whole. The word (saved) in this verse has the same meaning as the word (saved) in ( Rom. 5:9) where it says "Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be (saved) from wrath through him". We shall be (saved) or (delivered) from wrath through Him. This is just what I see from these verses anyway. Thank you Jesse for the post. God Bless.
I do own a Strongs Concordance, but I do not have access to it right now. It has been quite a while since I have used a concordance. Ever since I have learned to read and understand Greek (still learning), I have not relied on my concordance as much as I used to. My Greek NT (Textus Receptus) which I read from does not have the Strongs numbers. Sometimes I prefer to sit and read the Greek text over my English bible. For me, it brings out much more meaning as to what the English text is actually saying. Plus, I enjoy reading the Greek text as much as I can in order to become more fluent at it. I appreciate that you enjoy Greek and sharing Greek words. Other than looking words up in a concordance, if you don't mind me asking, what is your background in Greek, particularly with Greek sentence structure and how each word fits according to the way it is presented in the Greek? I believe the word you are speaking of is HUPOMENO? I mentioned in my post that this was an Aorist Participle, which is how I came to my understanding of how the word was being used. I can explain Aorist Participles if that helps.
Jesse I'm sorry if I offended you, I promise you that was not my intent. You said "you appreciate that I enjoy Greek and sharing Greek words" I don't enjoy Greek, when I do share Greek words its only to show the True meaning of the word from the KJB to be helpful to others who don't use a Concordance. I study the Word of God using a Strongs Concordance which gives the True meaning of those words in the Hebrew language and the Greek language. I do see the Word of God as being God breathed, ( 2 Tim. 3:16) it is exactly what God wanted it to be for these last generations, and that would especially apply for us today. Everyone can't read the Greek language like you can Jesse, but most everyone can own a KJB and a Strongs Concordance to get the True meaning of the words in the Original languages. You said you do own a Concordance so I would assume you find them to be helpful for finding deeper Truths from the Word of God through the meanings of the words in the Original language. You said you sometimes enjoy reading the Greek text over the English Bible because it brings out much more meaning? If the KJB is the Inspired Word of God (which it is) then that's why the Strongs Concordance works with it to get the Original meanings of the words. Modern versions have changed the words so you can't use a Strongs Concordance to get the True meaning of all their words. I honestly mean no disrespect Jesse, but being able to read the Greek text may not be as helpful to you as you think it is. If we Believe the Words of the LORD are pure Words and that God preserved His Words for ever, ( Ps. 12:6-7) then we do have those pure, God breathed Words today. Right? That would be the KJB. Again I truly mean no offence Jesse, I am learning on this site everyday, we all should be. Its not about who knows what, it should only be about seeking and accepting His Truth from His Word. We can all learn from one another, as I have said many times Truth matters. God Bless you Jesse.
I don't see anything in the words I wrote that would indicate that I was offended, but I can assure you that you did not offend me in the least bit. I agree with you on 2 Timothy 3:16. The early church would have also agreed on this even though the KJV wasn't even in existence at that time.
As for your statement that "Everyone can't read the Greek language like you can Jesse, but most everyone can own a KJB and a Strongs Concordance to get the True meaning of the words in the Original languages." I completely agree with you on that also. It is true that everyone can own a King James Bible and a Strongs Concordance. But it is also true that everyone has the opportunity to learn to read Greek language if they so choose. It is available for everyone just the same as the KJB and Strong's Concordance is available to everyone. Please know that I am in no way claiming to have a greater understanding than anyone else just because I have learned to read Greek. I would never claim that.
You're telling me that being able to read the Greek text may not be as helpful to me as I think it is, but how can you possibly know how much it has helped me? I can tell you that it has helped me tremendously in my studies. Wouldn't this statement be the same as saying that one who finds looking up Greek words in the Strong's Concordance to be helpful might not be as helpful as they think?
Again, you have not offended me at all. I do agree with some of the things you post, but not everything. I know you don't agree with me on everything either, but I would hope that you might agree with me on something I share. If we couldn't find common ground on anything, what would be the use of these discussions?
Jesse thank you for your response. When I said reading the Greek text may not be as helpful as you think it is, what I meant is if the King James Bible IS the Inspired Word of God (and it is) where He used holy men of God to translate it to the English language for these last days, then reading the Greek text would be going away from the Inspired Word of God that He sent to us for this time. God is in control of His Word being the most printed book of all time. It would be really, really hard for many people to learn a new language such as the Greek, comparing these two things is not quite a fair comparison wouldn't you agree with that? And then there would be the Hebrew language also, how hard would it be to learn both languages? I do agree with many things that you post Jesse, but it would seem the few things we do not agree on are very important for the time period we are living now. We are living the Lastdays. Jesse if the KJB is the Inspired Words of the LORD, then that means the fact that we can take any word from the KJB back to the Original language ourselves and get the True meaning of the words, would that not be like a second witness in the languages that God created for us? It is given to us by God Himself. The Word of God is alive today as we are told in ( Heb. 4:12) The word (quick) is #2198; it means to live, (a-) live. This is a perfect example of what I'm trying to say about the second witness in the languages. Without the Strongs Concordance then how would we know the Word of God is Alive today? The Truth should be the most important thing for you, for me and also for anybody who posts or just reads the posts in this group. Again I mean no offence, I am just being honest, and trying to be helpful to all. Truth matters. Thank you again Jesse. God Bless you.
Thank you for sharing Hebrews 4:12. I do agree with you that the word of God is alive today, just as it was back then. But if I may answer your question "Without the Strongs Concordance then how would we know the Word of God is Alive today?"
Do we really need a Strong's Concordance to know that the word of God is alive today? Those words in Hebrews 4:12 were written sometime between 67 and 69 AD. They had no concordance. And even if they did, what language would their concordance be written in if what they had at the time was the Greek text? How would they have known that the word of God was alive back then?
Please know that I am not trying to be argumentative here. I am just trying to understand why we would need a Strong's Concordance to know that the word of God is alive today.
Jesse there are many Christians today who have no idea the Word of God is Alive today. God is in control of His Word being preserved for the Lastdays, He is the judge of ALL people. God decides where and when in history all souls are born into this world. I honestly believe everybody alive today are on this earth right now because God wanted them to be here right now. He chooses when a soul is born, and where. Those who were alive back then will be judged with righteous judgement just like you and I will be judged righteously. Look at how much the population has exploded in the last 100 or so years? God is in control of that as we are now living in the time of the Lastdays. To think our God is in control of so much today, and then to doubt that He would preserve His true Words for this time period which is prophesied in His Word to be major deception with false prophets, and doctrine that's not sound doctrine. I honestly do not see that from our God. There is much deception today Jesse, I know you can see that because its everywhere, and in almost everything. Then if we just look at the verses in the Bible that tell us God preserved His Words for ever, and that prophets have (perverted) or (changed the words) of the living God. Verses that warn against adding too or taking away from His Words. All modern versions add to and take away. The Strongs Concordance is like a second witness in the languages to give us a deeper meaning of the words in the Original languages. The KJB is most important to have today, but using a Strongs Concordance with it is very, very helpful in deeper studies. Truth matters. God Bless Jesse.
Yes , even when the Word is true people still misunderstand it . I was talking to a neighbour just yesterday and for the first time he mentioned the Bible . I was so excited and my ears pricked up , he said : I was browsing my Bible last night and it's so full of contradictions ! I asked what they were and he said : what happened to Isaac ? One minute he's there the next God whisks him away ? I said I don't think you mean Isaac , maybe Enoch or Elijah , no no he said it was definately Isaac . I tried once more , very gently as I didn't want to discourage or push him away but he was adamant and then changed the subject . What could I do ? Even when it's all there in black and white ! I did say that his problem was that he was browsing through it , told him he needs to read it all etc , guess what he said ? He said ( he's 76 years old) oh I don't need to bother with all that really , I'm a catholic . I'm not joking :( . I shan't give up on him though , he's a sweet man , very kind and gentle , at least he showed some interest so maybe I can build on that at some point .
That was so encouraging to read, Jema. The Lord gave you a lovely opportunity to engage with your neighbor - maybe he will be drawn to searching out the Word of God for the answer he needs. You could always drop him a note (in case he doesn't want to speak about the Bible with you), giving him the references to Enoch's & Elijah's translation & even the Scriptures which show that Isaac continued on in life & fathered an important son who would one day be re-named 'Israel'. Hopefully, that should excite him to learn more & give you a further opportunity to minister to him. Keep him in prayer & for an open door to share again with him. Every blessing.
It's so nice , when we are just ambling along in life , doing our usual dull routine , when suddenly from nowhere we get the chance to talk about the Truth . It made me smile all day , I hope I didn't scare him away :) .
I've come to realize Jema, that when we are truly given over to the Lord & always ready "to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear", the Lord's Spirit will create the opportunity & give you the right words to share in the spirit of love & humility. That meeting may well have been ordered by the Lord & the words you shared with your neighbor might be the spark that will cause a deeper hunger & search for Truth. Anyway, he knows who he can come to for 'spiritual help'. Blessings.
I would have to side with Jesse on this matter. The original languages of the Scriptures are the true words of God that were inspired at the time God wished for them to be written. Our translations are from these original languages: Greek for the new Testament and Hebrew for the Old Testament. Those who can read Greek and Hebrew are a great source for yus and we should be willing to hear from them.
I don't concur with you that the KJV is the sole repository of God's inspired Word, nor that it in its translating was inspired like the originals written by the writers of the Old and New Testament books. It is a good translation to use, but is not perfectly translated any more than and other translation.
GiGi If we Believe the Word of God to be the Truth, then we would have to Believe ( Ps. 12:6-7) Is Truth, Right? The word (pure) is #2889; it means pure (in a physical, chemical, ceremonial or moral sense) clean, sound, unadulterated, uncontaminated, innocent or holy. (Do you think 10 different modern version Bibles that all say something different could be sound doctrine, or innocent or holy doctrine)? We cant pick and choose which verses are truly Gods Words and which are not truly Gods Words. Can we? We don't have manuscripts to study today, even if we did we wouldn't be able to read them so that cannot be the Words that God promised to preserve for us for the Lastdays, even for ever. With so many different Bible versions today that say so many different things, all with different wording they couldn't possibly be the unadulterated, uncontaminated, pure Words of the LORD. We are living the Lastdays now, imagine how long the evil minions of the Devil have had to figure out ways to deceive people without them even knowing it. In ( 2 Tim. 4:3-4) The word (doctrine) is #1319; it means instruction, (the function or the information) doctrine, learning, teaching. This doctrine is the instruction, the information we learn and teach from. That would be a book, A BIBLE. ( 2 Tim. 4:3) For the time will come when ((they will not endure)) ((sound doctrine)) The word (sound) is #5198; it means to be uncorrupt (true in doctrine) Where would that doctrine be today that's not sound doctrine? All modern versions are not sound doctrine. I know we don't agree on all things GiGi, but I pray God will show you this Truth. I Believe this to be the Truth with every part of my being. God cannot lie! God Bless you GiGi.
Jimbob, since the Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible are not the KJV (which you state is the only inspired and perfect version) and these were used to translate the KJV, then I would deduce that the KJV translators used corrupted versions in developing its translation. But, this topic is not one that I find to be vital to my faith. I have several translations I can use to check between them with KJV being one of them. I find all of them helpful.
GiGi I'm sorry I just found this comment. I'm not sure if you want me to comment on it or not so this will be very short. I believe if God was in control of the KJB being translated then whatever they used for the translation was exactly what was meant for them to use. Thats what makes it Inspired by God. God Bless you GiGi.
Jimbob, You are certainly welcome to keep your devotion to the KJV, but I do not read in Psalm 12 anything that singles out the KJV as the only true Bible. It is most likely that it does contain errors like any other translation as the Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible were used in the translating of the KJV So, the translator of the KJVC used a supposedly corrupt English versions when creating the KJV.
That said, I recognize that any translation I read from may have some errors in translation. But I do believe that there are translation besides the KJV that are as accurate as the KJV or even more so, from what I have studied about the translations.
I am enjoying reading the KJV this pasty year or so, since I had never read it before, even though I have read the Bible since I was 9. God has been good to me (because He is good) in instructing me through the Word over the decades I have walked with Him in faith and love. I put my confidence in Him, not in any specific translation, although I don't recommend the paraphrase versions.
GiGi, please take into consideration other people's faith. Your opinion on the KJV, having errors through out, could cause a new Christian to stumble. You do have the right to say whatever you want, but as a Christian, you have a responsibility.
I will say, in defense of God's Word, that God is quite capable of sending His Holy Spirit down upon the KJV translators, to ensure His Holy Word to be Perfect and True. And, it is perfect and true.
For someone to degrade a translation other than the KJV (that a believer may have actually used for many decades of their life) may cause such a person to think that the Bible is not reliable also.
My point is that there are a number of very reliable and acceptable translations available today, the KJV is one of them but not necessarily exclusively "the inspired" version. I can recommends the ESV or the NASB and the NIV, not because I think they are absolutely error-free, just as I don't think the KJV is error-free, but because they are 99.9% faithful to the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts currently available from which they translated into English.
With any translation from one language to another, there will be something lost in the language translated to. English is not as precise as the Greek nor as rich as the Hebrew. One word in English can refer to many things: for example, "meet" can mean getting together with another person (a verb) or a track competition (a noun) or can mean to satisfy a requirement or payment. Also it can mean to come to a compromise as in" meet in the middle". So, in this way, English is not as exacting as Greek.
So, I would hope that we can grant each other the grace to use whatever translation one chooses without being reviled for doing so. That is the real problem with this discussion.
Gigi, I'm not sure who is reviling you, I know that I did not. I simply asked you to be mindful of your words because of our new brothers and sisters in Christ or even non believers on this site that could see your statement that God's Word has errors through out. This could cause a new believer to stumble and fall, or a non believer to remain a non believer. As Christians we have a responsibility, especially mature Christians to not put a stumbling block in front of those that are weak in faith. I don't feel like you addressed my concern, you continued to argue your opinion that the KJV is littered with errors, then proceeded to make comments about people who only read the KJV, calling this "cult-like". I felt I was kind in my plea to you, but it seems I'm met with a refusal to curb your sharp words. I've seen some of the arguments you've been party to on this site, I don't plan to be a part of one. So, I'll accept your refusal. God Bless
I reviewed my posts and I did not say that anyone on here was reviling me. I don't know where you got that from, since I did not say that. Even so, I think you have spoken to me sensibly and with good intentions, as I have with you. So, thank you. This is the end of my input on this topic today. Have a good day.
Oops Tammy, I am sorry I meant to say that I did not say that those who read only the KJV are cult-like. Rather I was speaking of those who adhere to King James Onlyism who adhere to the view that the KJV is error-free, re-inspired, and the only true Word of God in this day.
Gigi, Thank you for your explanation, I knew what you meant, but was trying to be tactful while stating it. You've described me. And, I can promise you, I'm far from being cult like or in a cult. I only read the KJV, I believe it's the only Bible inspired by God and it's without error. However, I don't bash my brothers and sisters in Christ that read other versions. I believe you can still be saved while reading another version of the Bible. I think reading any Bible vs not reading one at all is a great thing. We'll just agree to disagree on your opinions here and leave it at that. God Bless
I appreciate your responses. I have read many things written by King James Only proponents who do speak of other translations as being vile, corrupt, and Satanically inspired. I have read things written by King James Only proponents who have said that those who read such translations can not be saved or that they are deceived by such translations. So, I know that you have not said this. And I appreciate this. Yet, the history of this movement bears out what I have said. I think that this is a good juncture to exit this discussion.
Tammy C. I did not say that the Bible is riddled with errors. I stated that the translations I mentioned, including the KJV are 99.9% accurate in translation from the text they were translated from. The errors that occur are quite minor and do not affect the overall meaning or doctrine put forth in the Bible.
I also did say that those who read only the KJV are cult-like, rather I was speaking of those who adhere to the King James
Onlyism sect that claims that only the KJV is error-free and re-inspired by God when it was translated, therefore bring perfect.
I do understand your admonition to me and I do take it seriously. I do trust that God will help those who are new believers in their approach to the Word. But thanks for the reminder.
I understand your concerns, but I am not casting aspersions on the KJV any more than on other translations. Historically, there have been scribal errors in the copies that still exist for use for translation from Greek and Hebrew. The task of translators has been to look at multiple text to determine what was most likely the original words used when they came across what seemed like a scribal error. This was done both in translating the KJV and other translations. Since 1611 many more documents that are older than the Received Text have been found that have been used for translations since 1611.
I am not disparaging the KJV. however those who hold to a King James Only position disparage other translations and assume that the translators had evil intentions to corrupt the Bible and also disparage and speak wickedly of those who do not agree with them concerning the KJV.
So, while I never want to confuse nor cause any believer to doubt the Scriptures or their faith, disagreeing with one who holds to King James Onlyism does not do that any more than the one who disparages other translations than the KJV or believers wh do not adhere to their King James Only viewpoint.
In the response I made to Jimbob, the Scripture he cited as his "proof" that the KJV is pure, perfect and inspired by God does not say anything about any translation of the original words of Scripture that were inspired, KJV included. But obviously, my disagreement with King James Onlyism strikes a nerve here, showing that the problem does not lie with me, but in those who hold to a cultlike dogma concerning the KJV. I do not apologize for anything I have said to Jimbob or you. Like Jimbob and you, I am entitled to my viewpoint here, so let's respect that for one another.
GiGi Im sorry for commenting on this after I told you that this conversation was over. But GiGi you have completely misquoted something I said. You replied to Tammy and said "In the response I made to Jimbob, the Scripture he cited as his "proof" that the KJV is pure, perfect and inspired by God does not say anything about any translation of the original words of Scripture that was inspired, KJV included. But obviously, my disagreement with King James Onlyism strikes a nerve here, showing that the problem does not lie with me, but in those who hold to a cultlike dogma concerning the KJV". You didn't get what I sad even close to right. My comment was to Jema, I said "Theres one verse that I have posted many times that is ((proof)) THAT MODERN VERSIONS ARE WORDS OF MEN, (perverted) words not inspired by God. ( Jer. 23:36) The word (perverted) is #2015; it means ((to change)). Jer 23 was a warning of false prophets and pastors, and v36 tells us they have (changed) the words of the living God". Thats what I said, and that verse is ((proof)) that modern versions are words of men who (perverted), who (change) the words of the living God. The Niv I own even changed the word (perverted) to (distort). I am not responding to argue GiGi, I just don't want to be misquoted. I would also like to add I am not a part of any cultlike anything, and I don't think I have ever spoken "wickedly" of you or anyone else in this group. If I did in any way I do apologize for that. But many people are in agreement that the KJB is the Inspired Word of God, we are not a cult but we are True Believers in God and His Inspired Word. ( Jer. 23:36) does say changing the word of God is (perverted) Thats not me saying that, but it is the Word of God saying that. We can disagree on some things and we can agree on other things GiGi. But we should always do it with respect and love. Again if I said anything wickedly, or even hurtful in any way, I apologize for it. God Bless you.
Jimbob, You are right in that you have been respectful of me. I was not referring to anyone on here. Thank you for explaining where you think I misrepresented you. I did not intend to do that. Have a good evening. We can talk another day on a different subject.
GiGi You said its (most likely) the KJB has errors also, you also said the translators of the KJB (supposedly) used corrupt English versions when creating the KJB. I say the Words of God should speak for themselves GiGi. To say "most likely" and "supposedly" doesn't sound like you are very confident in those statements. I will say again GiGi I am 100% confident the KJB is the Inspired Words of the LORD. The King James Bible is a translation which was Inspired by God. All modern versions are just that , they are (versions). You say you don't read anything in ( Ps. 12:6-7) that singles out the KJB as the only true Bible. This is two verses. Lets take a deeper look at these two verses? ( Ps. 12:6) Clearly tells us the subject is "The words of the LORD" Those words are (pure) words. The word (pure) again is #2889; it means sound, unadulterated, uncontaminated. In v6 we are also told "as silver tried in a furnace of earth, ((purified seven times)) What do you think the (seven times) means GiGi? Words are not meaningless in the Word of God, Every Word has meaning. A (time) in the Bible is 1 year, (examples in ( Dan. 12:7) and ( Rev. 12:14) So being purified (seven times) means it was purified 7 years, remember the subject in this verse is ((the Words of the LORD)). The King James Bible took 7 years to finish its translation. The Words of the LORD were purified 7 times, 7 years. Now ( Ps. 12:7) "Thou shalt (keep) them, O LORD, thou shalt (preserve) them from this generation for ever. The subject is still the Words of the LORD! The word (keep) is #8104; it means to hedge about (as with thorns) i.e. guard, to protect. The word (preserve) is #5341; it means to guard, (to protect, maintain, obey). This verse tells us the Words of the LORD are hedged about (as with thorns) guarded, protected, maintained FOR EVER. GiGi this is only two verses. I hope you can read more into Ps. 12:6-7 after reading this GiGi. I am 100% sure the KJB is the Inspired Word of God. God Bless you.
If I am wrong about this you can correct me , for me one of the many reasons why the KJV is superior to all other translations is because , as far as I'm aware it is the only one that actually has a concordance that can be used to look up the meaning of the words in their
original language . This is a massive benefit to it as I'm sure you can recognise . If you are reading any other version you will not have that tool to help you understand why the translators ( I use that word loosely , as many versions don't translate , they just substitute more modern words that they think are more accessable to modern readers ) used the words that they did . KJV all the way for me , I've tried others and when you compare ,the differences are terrifying .
GiGi I'm not doubting your word but the Niv has changed their own words so many times there is no way they can be in alignment with the Hebrew and Greek languages. How can they possibly have a Strongs Concordance that takes (all the words) in their bibles back to the Original languages of Hebrew and Greek so we get the True meaning of the words? Are you sure you have a Strongs Concordance for the Niv?
Jema, most concordance have an alphabetical listing of words used in the Scripture. Each word has Scripture references listed after each word with a short phrase after the Scripture reference. So, if I am thinking of a Bible verse, but do not know exactly where it is, then I can look a word of this verse up in the concordance and find the verse I wanted. This is very helpful to me. I have read the Scriptures all my life and I do recall many verses by memory, but I do not always know the exact place in Scripture as to book and verse by memory.
GiGi Thank you for that, it sounded from your comment like the Niv had a Concordance like the Strong's Concordance that shows the meaning of all the words in the Hebrew and Greek language, that's in perfect alignment with the KJB. I will be respectful GiGi, our conversation about this is over. All we can do is show what we see as the Truth in Scripture, everyone has their own mind to believe what they want to, right GiGi. God Bless you.
Our English Bible makes it sound like a challenge for us to endure unto the end, like we need to do whatever it takes to endure.
But the literal translation from the Greek is, "but the one who has endured," not the one who will, but the one who has endured unto the end, this one will be saved.
In the Greek text, this is an Aorist Participle, which shows the proof of those who are saved, and it matches the rest of the teachings in the New Testament.
The person who is saved WILL endure to the end. So we have the proof, and secondly, the promise of salvation. Salvation is a promise. We are saved now. And when all this is over, the ones who will be saved are the ones who have endured unto the end.
9Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake.
10And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.
11And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many.
12And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.
13But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
When you see the word "Then" it's telling you what is coming next, after the Beginning of Sorrows, and then you see the word "And" three times, that is a continuation/inclusion of things happening at that time, then we see the word "BUT", meaning a totally different statement but connected to what's being said. So, the topic is first, speaking to believers about what will happen during the end times, warnings. But the person that is able to endure all those things, until the end, those very people shall be saved. Logically, if you don't endure those things, you will not be saved.
I do own a Strongs Concordance, but I do not have access to it right now. It has been quite a while since I have used a concordance. Ever since I have learned to read and understand Greek (still learning), I have not relied on my concordance as much as I used to. My Greek NT (Textus Receptus) which I read from does not have the Strongs numbers. Sometimes I prefer to sit and read the Greek text over my English bible. For me, it brings out much more meaning as to what the English text is actually saying. Plus, I enjoy reading the Greek text as much as I can in order to become more fluent at it. I appreciate that you enjoy Greek and sharing Greek words. Other than looking words up in a concordance, if you don't mind me asking, what is your background in Greek, particularly with Greek sentence structure and how each word fits according to the way it is presented in the Greek? I believe the word you are speaking of is HUPOMENO? I mentioned in my post that this was an Aorist Participle, which is how I came to my understanding of how the word was being used. I can explain Aorist Participles if that helps.
Blessings to you also!
I don't see anything in the words I wrote that would indicate that I was offended, but I can assure you that you did not offend me in the least bit. I agree with you on 2 Timothy 3:16. The early church would have also agreed on this even though the KJV wasn't even in existence at that time.
As for your statement that "Everyone can't read the Greek language like you can Jesse, but most everyone can own a KJB and a Strongs Concordance to get the True meaning of the words in the Original languages." I completely agree with you on that also. It is true that everyone can own a King James Bible and a Strongs Concordance. But it is also true that everyone has the opportunity to learn to read Greek language if they so choose. It is available for everyone just the same as the KJB and Strong's Concordance is available to everyone. Please know that I am in no way claiming to have a greater understanding than anyone else just because I have learned to read Greek. I would never claim that.
You're telling me that being able to read the Greek text may not be as helpful to me as I think it is, but how can you possibly know how much it has helped me? I can tell you that it has helped me tremendously in my studies. Wouldn't this statement be the same as saying that one who finds looking up Greek words in the Strong's Concordance to be helpful might not be as helpful as they think?
Again, you have not offended me at all. I do agree with some of the things you post, but not everything. I know you don't agree with me on everything either, but I would hope that you might agree with me on something I share. If we couldn't find common ground on anything, what would be the use of these discussions?
God Bless you also!
Thank you for sharing Hebrews 4:12. I do agree with you that the word of God is alive today, just as it was back then. But if I may answer your question "Without the Strongs Concordance then how would we know the Word of God is Alive today?"
Do we really need a Strong's Concordance to know that the word of God is alive today? Those words in Hebrews 4:12 were written sometime between 67 and 69 AD. They had no concordance. And even if they did, what language would their concordance be written in if what they had at the time was the Greek text? How would they have known that the word of God was alive back then?
Please know that I am not trying to be argumentative here. I am just trying to understand why we would need a Strong's Concordance to know that the word of God is alive today.
I would have to side with Jesse on this matter. The original languages of the Scriptures are the true words of God that were inspired at the time God wished for them to be written. Our translations are from these original languages: Greek for the new Testament and Hebrew for the Old Testament. Those who can read Greek and Hebrew are a great source for yus and we should be willing to hear from them.
I don't concur with you that the KJV is the sole repository of God's inspired Word, nor that it in its translating was inspired like the originals written by the writers of the Old and New Testament books. It is a good translation to use, but is not perfectly translated any more than and other translation.
That said, I recognize that any translation I read from may have some errors in translation. But I do believe that there are translation besides the KJV that are as accurate as the KJV or even more so, from what I have studied about the translations.
I am enjoying reading the KJV this pasty year or so, since I had never read it before, even though I have read the Bible since I was 9. God has been good to me (because He is good) in instructing me through the Word over the decades I have walked with Him in faith and love. I put my confidence in Him, not in any specific translation, although I don't recommend the paraphrase versions.
I will say, in defense of God's Word, that God is quite capable of sending His Holy Spirit down upon the KJV translators, to ensure His Holy Word to be Perfect and True. And, it is perfect and true.
God Bless
For someone to degrade a translation other than the KJV (that a believer may have actually used for many decades of their life) may cause such a person to think that the Bible is not reliable also.
My point is that there are a number of very reliable and acceptable translations available today, the KJV is one of them but not necessarily exclusively "the inspired" version. I can recommends the ESV or the NASB and the NIV, not because I think they are absolutely error-free, just as I don't think the KJV is error-free, but because they are 99.9% faithful to the Greek and Hebrew manuscripts currently available from which they translated into English.
With any translation from one language to another, there will be something lost in the language translated to. English is not as precise as the Greek nor as rich as the Hebrew. One word in English can refer to many things: for example, "meet" can mean getting together with another person (a verb) or a track competition (a noun) or can mean to satisfy a requirement or payment. Also it can mean to come to a compromise as in" meet in the middle". So, in this way, English is not as exacting as Greek.
So, I would hope that we can grant each other the grace to use whatever translation one chooses without being reviled for doing so. That is the real problem with this discussion.
I have heard of them, but do not know much about them. I do know that they contained the book of Isaiah. I will research more on them when I can.
I reviewed my posts and I did not say that anyone on here was reviling me. I don't know where you got that from, since I did not say that. Even so, I think you have spoken to me sensibly and with good intentions, as I have with you. So, thank you. This is the end of my input on this topic today. Have a good day.
I appreciate your responses. I have read many things written by King James Only proponents who do speak of other translations as being vile, corrupt, and Satanically inspired. I have read things written by King James Only proponents who have said that those who read such translations can not be saved or that they are deceived by such translations. So, I know that you have not said this. And I appreciate this. Yet, the history of this movement bears out what I have said. I think that this is a good juncture to exit this discussion.
I also did say that those who read only the KJV are cult-like, rather I was speaking of those who adhere to the King James
Onlyism sect that claims that only the KJV is error-free and re-inspired by God when it was translated, therefore bring perfect.
I do understand your admonition to me and I do take it seriously. I do trust that God will help those who are new believers in their approach to the Word. But thanks for the reminder.
I understand your concerns, but I am not casting aspersions on the KJV any more than on other translations. Historically, there have been scribal errors in the copies that still exist for use for translation from Greek and Hebrew. The task of translators has been to look at multiple text to determine what was most likely the original words used when they came across what seemed like a scribal error. This was done both in translating the KJV and other translations. Since 1611 many more documents that are older than the Received Text have been found that have been used for translations since 1611.
I am not disparaging the KJV. however those who hold to a King James Only position disparage other translations and assume that the translators had evil intentions to corrupt the Bible and also disparage and speak wickedly of those who do not agree with them concerning the KJV.
So, while I never want to confuse nor cause any believer to doubt the Scriptures or their faith, disagreeing with one who holds to King James Onlyism does not do that any more than the one who disparages other translations than the KJV or believers wh do not adhere to their King James Only viewpoint.
In the response I made to Jimbob, the Scripture he cited as his "proof" that the KJV is pure, perfect and inspired by God does not say anything about any translation of the original words of Scripture that were inspired, KJV included. But obviously, my disagreement with King James Onlyism strikes a nerve here, showing that the problem does not lie with me, but in those who hold to a cultlike dogma concerning the KJV. I do not apologize for anything I have said to Jimbob or you. Like Jimbob and you, I am entitled to my viewpoint here, so let's respect that for one another.
I have stated my ideas on this and do not concur with you concerning the KJV vs. other translations. So, I will exit this conversation at this point.
original language . This is a massive benefit to it as I'm sure you can recognise . If you are reading any other version you will not have that tool to help you understand why the translators ( I use that word loosely , as many versions don't translate , they just substitute more modern words that they think are more accessable to modern readers ) used the words that they did . KJV all the way for me , I've tried others and when you compare ,the differences are terrifying .
There are concordances for other translations. I have one for the NIV.
This NIV concordance is not a Strong's. It is a simple concordance without the Greek or Hebrew.