Actually, the verse does not imply homosexuality. The original text refers to "two persons" in one bed and emphasizes the point that the rapture could occur at any moment, whether we're awake or sleeping, some taken and some not. While I believe a homosexual could become a Christian, I certainly do not believe that this is a justification of that life style. Why would Jesus mention the destruction of Sodom only a few passages before and then justify homosexuality; Luke 17:29 " But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all." There is simply no reference to sexuality in the verse. But don't take my word for it, take the verse in the context of the entire bible and Be like the Christians from Berea in Acts 17:11. "These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so."
This comment thread is locked. Please enter a new comment to start a new comment thread.
Enter new comment
This comment thread is locked. Please enter a new comment below to start a new comment thread.
Note: Comment threads older than 2 months are automatically locked.
Do you have a Bible comment or question?
Posting comments is currently unavailable due to high demand on the server.
Please check back in an hour or more. Thank you for your patience!
Report Comment
Which best represents the problem with the comment?