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I have a question. I always lean on the KJV to be an authoritative translation. Is this law referencing the "law" in God's heart instead of the actual law?
1 John 3:4 (KJV) 4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
1 John 3:4 (NKJV) 4 Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.
1Jn 3:4 The opposite of purifying oneself is found in verse four: "Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness." The word commits is literally does (Gk., poieo). It is a matter of continual behavior, expressed by the present, continuous tense. It is possible to have sin even if there is no law. Sin was in the world between the time of Adam and Moses, but this was before God's law had been given. Thus it is not entirely accurate to say "that sin is a transgression of the law" (1611 KJV), but rather that sin is lawlessness. It is insubordination to God, wanting one's own way, and refusing to acknowledge the Lord as rightful Sovereign. In essence, it is placing one's own will above the will of God. It is opposition to a Living Person who has the right to be obeyed.
Pas(Everyone) o poion(who is doing) ten amartian(the sin) kai ten anomian(and the lawlessness) poiei(is doing), kai e amartia (and the sin) einai e anomia (is the lawlessness).
And you are right about the verb "poieo", in this specific verse it has the meaning of a continual behavior, expressed by the present continuous tense, as you said.
About the Law. Before it was given a written Law to Moses, there were always oral commandments given by God to His people. Even in the garden of Eden the commandment(Law) was not to eat from the tree of knowledge the good and the evil. Breaking God's commandments oral or written was always a sin. But the right and complete Law(commandments) that reflect God's character (what God does really consider right) were given to us by Jesus Christ in His teachings and subsequently written down in the Bible by His disciples and hence preserved for all people of all ages.
1 John 3:4 (KJV) 4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Just in my humble opinion, I feel the Holy Spirit moved the translator to render it "law" in the KJV.
As you stated "There were always oral commandments given by God to His people. Even in the garden of Eden, the commandment(Law) was not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and the evil." As I suspected, to put it another way, the law may have been referencing the "law" in God's heart.
1 John 3:4 (KJV) 4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
1 John 3:4 (NKJV) 4 Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.
1Jn 3:4 The opposite of purifying oneself is found in verse four: "Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness." The word commits is literally does (Gk., poieo). It is a matter of continual behavior, expressed by the present, continuous tense. It is possible to have sin even if there is no law. Sin was in the world between the time of Adam and Moses, but this was before God's law had been given. Thus it is not entirely accurate to say "that sin is a transgression of the law" (1611 KJV), but rather that sin is lawlessness. It is insubordination to God, wanting one's own way, and refusing to acknowledge the Lord as rightful Sovereign. In essence, it is placing one's own will above the will of God. It is opposition to a Living Person who has the right to be obeyed.
Pas(Everyone) o poion(who is doing) ten amartian(the sin) kai ten anomian(and the lawlessness) poiei(is doing), kai e amartia (and the sin) einai e anomia (is the lawlessness).
And you are right about the verb "poieo", in this specific verse it has the meaning of a continual behavior, expressed by the present continuous tense, as you said.
About the Law. Before it was given a written Law to Moses, there were always oral commandments given by God to His people. Even in the garden of Eden the commandment(Law) was not to eat from the tree of knowledge the good and the evil. Breaking God's commandments oral or written was always a sin. But the right and complete Law(commandments) that reflect God's character (what God does really consider right) were given to us by Jesus Christ in His teachings and subsequently written down in the Bible by His disciples and hence preserved for all people of all ages.
1 John 3:4 (KJV) 4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
Just in my humble opinion, I feel the Holy Spirit moved the translator to render it "law" in the KJV.
As you stated "There were always oral commandments given by God to His people. Even in the garden of Eden, the commandment(Law) was not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and the evil." As I suspected, to put it another way, the law may have been referencing the "law" in God's heart.
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