I am confused. Babylon is reckoned to have fallen sometime around 600 BC (date is debated) however Rev 18 was written by John sometime much later( xx AD). Mathew Henry's comments make no mention as to the Babylon in Rev 18 being symbolic of any time in the future - beyond John's time.
So, is Rev 18 referring to the historical fall of Babylon or is there some future meaning to be understood that I have not grasped?
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So, is Rev 18 referring to the historical fall of Babylon or is there some future meaning to be understood that I have not grasped?
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