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BIBLE DISCUSSION THREAD 30563

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  • Joe on John 2 - 10 years ago
    T Bennett,
    It is by no means disrespectful. In fact the opposite is true. First, “What have I to do with thee?” Is like saying what do you want me to do? Second, when Jesus refers to Mary as “Woman” the Greek translation does not denote any disrespect. In John 19:26 while Jesus was on the cross he was deeply concerned about her sadness and grief, yet again he refers to Mary as “Woman”. He loves her as he does all of us. There was certainly no disrespect.



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