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Did the original Bible writers actually speak with the use of the "thee, thou, saith, lieth..."
Of course not, so then why is it used in Bible translations? Is it because man thinks that the words need to be more holy since they come from God? That somehow by adding to the scriptures what was never there to begin with improves them? Its confusing and completely unnecessary.
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Of course not, so then why is it used in Bible translations? Is it because man thinks that the words need to be more holy since they come from God? That somehow by adding to the scriptures what was never there to begin with improves them? Its confusing and completely unnecessary.
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