Bible Discussion Thread

It completely in error for the term pascha to be translated as the pagan term "Easter " in Acts 12:4. The KJV translators mistranslated pascha to conform to customs and traditions of the day. Virtually all scholarship agrees that the term "Easter " finds its origin in paganism "Easter " is a heathen term, derived from the Saxon goddess Eastre. Christians did not even use the term until hundreds of years after the first century. And many then and more today do not use it because of its association and origin with paganism. Of the 29 places pascha appears in the NT, the KJV rightfully translates it "Passover " at every place except Acts 12:4. The comment above "it is the only place in the Bible where 'pascha ' appears in a post-Resurrection context " is untrue. In 1 Cor. 5:7 we read that "Christ our Passover also has been sacrificed. " This is clearly a post-resurrection context note the aorist here . But it really does not make a difference. Hence, "Easter " is clearly a KJV translational mistake. The pagan term "Easter, " which represents the fertility goddess is not an acceptable translation of pascha.