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I want to know what the significance is of the first verse having "is " in italics. The spirit of the Lord "is " upon me... In the original Hebrew text, the word is "was ". The spirit of the Lord "was " upon me... But I cannot find any commentary that explains this seemingly benign change or reference to a change. And to the commenter who wrote about being a prisoner or a captive, I find that an interesting thought. But I do not like when the phrase under the law is used to speak of God 's law. It 's the law of sin and death that is opposite of grace. To say the law is opposed to grace is to say God is opposed to himself and that he makes bad policy that needs to be corrected. It is we that need to correct our miseducation. Thank you for your help.
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