John 1:1,RS:" In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God and the word was God[also KJ,JB,Dy,Kx,NAB]" NE reads "what God was,the Word was." Mo says" the logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine."The interlinear rendering of ED is a god was the word."NW reads the Word was a god";NTIV uses the same wording.
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite artical(the)appears before the first occurrence of theos'(God) but not before the second. The articular (when the artical appears) construction of the noun point to an identity, a personality, wheras a singular anarthrous (with out the artical) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) point to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus)was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather,that the word was godlike,divine,a god. What did the Johm mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himslf god or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one["no man ,"KJ,Dy]has ever seen God; the only son ["the only begotten god NW],Who is in the bosom of the Father,he has made known."(RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ,the Son? Of course! So, then ,was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Towards the end of his Gospel,John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ[not God] the Son of God."- John 20:31.RS.
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John 1:1,RS:" In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God and the word was God[also KJ,JB,Dy,Kx,NAB]" NE reads "what God was,the Word was." Mo says" the logos was divine." AT and Sd tell us "the Word was divine."The interlinear rendering of ED is a god was the word."NW reads the Word was a god";NTIV uses the same wording.
What is it that these translators are seeing in the Greek text that moves some of them to refrain from saying "the Word was God"? The definite artical(the)appears before the first occurrence of theos'(God) but not before the second. The articular (when the artical appears) construction of the noun point to an identity, a personality, wheras a singular anarthrous (with out the artical) predicate noun before the verb (as the sentence is constructed in Greek) point to a quality about someone. So the text is not saying that the Word (Jesus)was the same as the God with whom he was but, rather,that the word was godlike,divine,a god. What did the Johm mean when he wrote John 1:1? Did he mean that Jesus is himslf god or perhaps that Jesus is one God with the Father? In the same chapter, verse 18, John wrote: "No one["no man ,"KJ,Dy]has ever seen God; the only son ["the only begotten god NW],Who is in the bosom of the Father,he has made known."(RS) Had any human seen Jesus Christ,the Son? Of course! So, then ,was John saying that Jesus was God? Obviously not. Towards the end of his Gospel,John summarized matters, saying: "These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ[not God] the Son of God."- John 20:31.RS.
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