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Responding to Alberto. The book of John was written by John in the Greek Language, but it was inspired by Jehovah God. The book of John relays Jehovah's thoughts, not John's. Therefore, don't you think that God would make sure that John used the appropriate wording in Greek to convey the truth?
In the King James bible 1-23 He said, I am THE VOICE OF ONE CRYING IN THE WILDERNESS, Make STRAIGHT THE WAY OF THE LORD, as said the prophet E-sa'-ias.
Jesus is God the Son. Jesus is the Living Word of God. The Bible is the Written Word of God. There is no beginning or end to God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
Can you understand heaven? Do you know what it looks like? Can you fathom it? I think not. The same with the Trinity. It exist. There is all three, God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. Accepting it by faith, and it makes perfect sense. Jesus (God the Son) was present in the beginning, and He was with God the Father, and He is God.
At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the‧os′ (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (“and the Word [lo′gos] was with God [a form of the‧os′]”). This first the‧os′ is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).
On the other hand, there is no article before the second the‧os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the‧os′ (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (“the”), but it did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions “with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.” As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo′gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: “The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the‧os′] cannot be regarded as definite.”
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article “a” when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: “They supposed it had been a spirit.” In the Koine Greek, there is no “a” before “spirit.” But almost all translations in other languages add an “a” in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was “a god,” or “divine.”
ʼElo‧him′ means, not “persons,” but “gods.” So those who argue that this word implies a Trinity make themselves polytheists, worshipers of more than one God. Why? Because it would mean that there were three gods in the Trinity. But nearly all Trinity supporters reject the view that the Trinity is made up of three separate gods.
WHILE Jesus is often called the Son of God in the Bible, nobody in the first century ever thought of him as being God the Son. Even the demons, who “believe there is one God,” knew from their experience in the spirit realm that Jesus was not God. So, correctly, they addressed Jesus as the separate “Son of God.” ( James 2:19; Matthew 8:29)
@Fathead: The KJV English translation of the original Greek language is a very accurate translation.
If you look up the Greek, you can see, the KJV is translating exactly what it should:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
If you substitute the Capital letter 'God' with a lowercase letter 'god' and stick an 'a' in front of it, you've just stripped Christ from His divinity.
(Not to mention, that the original Greek does not have an 'a' in it, therefore you could not just stick it in there in the English translation)
This is being done by some cults and leads to many unbiblical doctrines.
Instead of trying to change the Bible I rather suggest to try to understand it. I found it interesting that these passages are the ones that teach us the most if we are open to learn:
How could the Word be with God and Be God at the same time? It is only possible if the Word Himself was God Himself, which perfectly matches up with the rest of the scriptures.
How could he be with God and be God Would it not read better if a was added where it was supposed to be and read in the begining the word was and the word was with God and the word was a god ?
Before jesus came man was dome an was set for the coming of the hellfire. But jesus come that HE may give us HIS divin light. It was stated in Luke19:10 "For the SON of man has come to seek and to save that which was lost." There ant know boby eles that can save a man' soul from the darkness of sin.
When I read verse2 of John1 I fully understand that this is the SON of the most loving GOD;I belive that JEUSE was in the beginning an no one can take that away.
don, Pls becarefull on what we are commenting with regard to the bible scripture, we must be biblical and do not depend on our understanding, The WORD does not represent the thought of God or will of God... The WORD in jn1:1 refers to the Son of God which was also with God in the begging and that is His Son who "WAS THE WORD" that because of that WORD all things were made including you... Kaanib
The Word represents the thoughts of God and they are written down in the Bible as a record of God's Will for us. A good leader would not ask his servants to do anything he was not willing to do himself, so God made His thoughts (His Will) flesh through the life of Jesus. While God remained in Heaven, He also walked through the world as a man in the human form of Jesus Christ, experiencing everything as we do (with all the pain and temptations we know and are familiar with - up to and including the perspective of a parent watching His child suffer), while personally teaching us his ways and then demonstrating everything he taught. Pretty wild if you ask me!!
TLet Us is constantly used even after the flood still signifying the word Elohim as a trinity, i.e. plural word. In John vs 1 the Word is Jesus and was made flesh so that he could die on the cross for mankind (his very own creation). In the book of Revelation chapter 19 starting in vs 13 - And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
when the apostol refer to JESUS as THE WORD it is simbolic JESUS is not the Bible as the FATHER isn't too , because JESUS is before the Bible was writen limiting JESUS to a book is unreasonable is a thought with out meaning because JESUS is GOD , HE is the second person of GOD HEAD.
John Chapter One Verse one: What does it mean the words in the (beginning) and what is the Word referring too. or whom is the scripture (Word) speaking of, and does that mean Jesus the Word is the whole bible from the beginning of the scriptures to the end scriptures (talking about Jesus,) (In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God. and the Word was God.
JESUS is GOD all thins were made by HIM that is cystal clear Luke 10:21 JESUS rejoiced in spirit, and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, that thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes: even so, Father MATTHEW 18:3 And said, Verily I say unto you, Except ye be converted, and become as little children, ye shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.
The answer is there indeed. If you don't understand ask YHVH for guidance and check the original words and you will find your answer.Everyone who seeks righteousness will be given answers. There is no trap in not being lazy and checking up on words and phrases that don't seem clear with the rest of Scripture or in your native language.For your beloved King James Bible was translated out of those languages. No Bible is perfect and infallible. The message in them is consistent and true however to those who seek righteousness only. That is why Yeshua loved to speak in parables. Not to confuse but because he knew only righteousness seeking people could understand his parables.
God is not a God of confusion as shown in 1 Cor 14:33, the above comments imply the opposite, I do not have to be a Greek scholar nor consider Hebraic settings. If I choose and trust the only true Word of God, the King James version. It is perfectly clear what God intends me to believe. I may not fully understand it, but I believe it. Don't fall into the trap of listening to so called modern "scholars". The answer is there all the time.
That verse is sticking to me for some odd reason. The tenth hour part y would john write that there? What im i missing about the tenth hour! And what else does it relate to? Old or new testament,death or birth? I want to know!
I understood from this scripture is God our Father in heaven created everything with a word.God sent his son to declare about Father in Heaven.Jesus says Believe and we can c greater things.
Beloved Jennifer and anybody else who may read this.First of all John was a Jew and so his way of thinking was Hebraic NOT Greek. The word Logos(The Word)has many meanings.Here it basically means "Divine Plan".So the divine plan has always been with YHVH(God of the Bible)and so you can say it is YHVH for it is in him.Yeshua(Jesus)is the expression of the divine plan in the flesh but that does not mean that he is YHVH(God).When it says that the Word became flesh it is saying Yeshua(Jesus)was CREATED.Pre-existence from the Hebraic point of view(John's POV)means that Yeshua pre-existed as a an idea or thought as part of the divine plan(Logos,Word) not that he literally existed as an immortal being like Greek thinking would tell you.Scripture MUST be approached with a Hebraic way of thinking or you will be mislead like many have been.May YHVH bless you and give you Truth.
John 1 is a great passage. Speaking of Christ as the creator of the world and as the lamb of God takes away the myth that God the Eternal Father and Christ are the same. They are seperate and distinct. That being said it is spoken of in Jeremiah of 2 sticks that would come forth and bare witness of Christ. The stick (book) of Judah (the Jews) and the stick (book) of Joseph. The people of South America have a legend of a great white God that appeared to them as do the Hawaiian islands have a similar legend. The Book of Mormon is another testament of Jesus Christ of a people that came from Jerusalem during Jeremiah's time and testified of Christ. Is the Book of Mormon true. Find out for yourself. Get a copy and read it and ask your Father in Heaven. Their is a promise to the readers of the Book of Mormon found in the last book in it. Moroni 10:3-5. Don't take anyones word for it. Find out for yourself.
I am not sure what the above is saying...but, the Word is Jesus. God created the Earth through Jesus. Below is a quote pulled from a review of: Truth in Translation: Accuracy and Bias in English Translations of the New Testament (Paperback)
"For example: English readers often claim that NW is false in Jonh 1:1. Trinitarians in Greece have never used this specific verse to claim that the New World Translation (NW) is wrong, since all the Orthodox versions read actually the same with the greek version of the NW. And this happens because the wording of this verse is very clear for the Greek reader, and there is no place for debate. I am sorry to say this, but for a Greek it is rediculus to debate on John 1:1."
Verse 13 "Born,not of the will of the flesh, nor the will of man, but of God." Who can read these words and deny that as the prophet Jonah said, "Salvation is of the Lord"? This verse and indeed the entire book of John should strike a death blow to Arminianism. God is as sovereign in salvation as He is in everything, bestowing grace on whom He will, and passing others by to die in their sins. Sinner, may God give you grace today to repent and believe on Christ Jesus as your Savior.
am thankful for GOD'S word,love reading it here online,think it both a blessing and a privilege to have it,and enjoy the freedom of using it,in JESUS name! it is such a blessing to me! keep it going in JESUS's NAME!
Can you understand heaven? Do you know what it looks like? Can you fathom it? I think not. The same with the Trinity. It exist. There is all three, God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit. Accepting it by faith, and it makes perfect sense. Jesus (God the Son) was present in the beginning, and He was with God the Father, and He is God.
On the other hand, there is no article before the second the‧os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the‧os′ (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (“the”), but it did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions “with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.” As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo′gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: “The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the‧os′] cannot be regarded as definite.”
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article “a” when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: “They supposed it had been a spirit.” In the Koine Greek, there is no “a” before “spirit.” But almost all translations in other languages add an “a” in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was “a god,” or “divine.”
WHILE Jesus is often called the Son of God in the Bible, nobody in the first century ever thought of him as being God the Son. Even the demons, who “believe there is one God,” knew from their experience in the spirit realm that Jesus was not God. So, correctly, they addressed Jesus as the separate “Son of God.” ( James 2:19; Matthew 8:29)
If you look up the Greek, you can see, the KJV is translating exactly what it should:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."
If you substitute the Capital letter 'God' with a lowercase letter 'god' and stick an 'a' in front of it, you've just stripped Christ from His divinity.
(Not to mention, that the original Greek does not have an 'a' in it, therefore you could not just stick it in there in the English translation)
This is being done by some cults and leads to many unbiblical doctrines.
Instead of trying to change the Bible I rather suggest to try to understand it. I found it interesting that these passages are the ones that teach us the most if we are open to learn:
How could the Word be with God and Be God at the same time? It is only possible if the Word Himself was God Himself, which perfectly matches up with the rest of the scriptures.
"For example: English readers often claim that NW is false in Jonh 1:1. Trinitarians in Greece have never used this specific verse to claim that the New World Translation (NW) is wrong, since all the Orthodox versions read actually the same with the greek version of the NW. And this happens because the wording of this verse is very clear for the Greek reader, and there is no place for debate. I am sorry to say this, but for a Greek it is rediculus to debate on John 1:1."