Here is one for you. Why does it state in the KJV "What are these wounds in thine hands? " and in the NIV it states "What are these wounds in thing back "? I know they are talking about the false prophet and the ritual scares related to pagan practices that his friends gave him. I don t get the mix up of hands and back. Why does the KJV say hands? Big difference between the two.
In the last days when the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ starts to diminish only one person will have the true anointing Those who will believe will be saved